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An adult who has gastroenteritis and is on digitalis ha lab values of: K 3.2 mEq/L, Na 136 mEq/L, Ca 8.8 mg/dl, and Cl 98 mEq/L. the nurse puts which of the following on the client's plan of care?
- A. Stop digitalis therapy
- B. Observe for trousseau's and chovestek's
- C. Avoid foods rich in potassium signs
- D. Observe for digitalis toxicity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's low potassium level (K 3.2 mEq/L) is a cause for concern, especially in a patient on digitalis therapy. Digitalis (such as digoxin) can potentiate the effects of hypokalemia, leading to an increased risk of digitalis toxicity. Therefore, in this scenario, it is important to avoid foods rich in potassium to prevent further lowering of the potassium level. It is essential to address the electrolyte imbalance promptly to prevent potential complications related to digitalis therapy.
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Which of the following is the humoral immune response?
- A. B cells phagocytise the foreign antigen
- B. T cells are stimulated by B cells and turn into plasma cells, which produce antibodies or memory cells.
- C. B cells are stimulated by T helper cells or macrophages and turn into plasma cells, which produce antibodies or memory cells.
- D. T cells produce antibodies.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The humoral immune response involves the activation of B cells, which are stimulated by T helper cells or macrophages. When B cells are activated, they differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies specific to the foreign antigen. These antibodies can neutralize pathogens, tag them for destruction by other immune cells, or activate the complement system. In addition to producing antibodies, memory B cells are also generated during this process, providing long-lasting immunity upon re-exposure to the same antigen. This coordinated response is an essential part of the adaptive immune system's defense mechanism against foreign invaders.
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs
- B. Monitor temperature every 4hrs
- C. Splint the incision when repositioning the client
- D. Irrigate tubes as ordered CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH DISORDERS OF THE BLADDER AND URETHRA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring temperature every 4 hours is crucial in detecting signs of a urinary tract infection in a postoperative client. An increase in temperature can indicate the presence of an infection, and early identification is essential for prompt treatment. While coughing and deep breathing (Option A) are beneficial for postoperative clients to prevent respiratory complications, they are not directly related to detecting UTI. Splinting the incision (Option C) is important for incisional care but does not specifically help in detecting UTI. Irrigating tubes (Option D) should only be done as ordered by the healthcare provider and is not a routine measure for detecting UTI.
The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV. Which of the following foods would the nurse teach the patient is safe to eat to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Raw fruits
- B. Raw vegetables
- C. Cooked vegetables
- D. Caesar dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with HIV, it is important to reduce the risk of infection by avoiding potentially contaminated foods. Cooked vegetables are safer to eat compared to raw fruits and vegetables since cooking helps to kill harmful pathogens that can be present on raw produce. Caesar dressing, which typically contains raw eggs, should also be avoided as these can pose a risk of foodborne illness for individuals with compromised immune systems like those with HIV. Therefore, the nurse should teach the patient that cooked vegetables are a safer option for reducing the risk of infection.
Mr Santos is scheduled for CT SCAN for the next day, noon time. Which of the following is the correct preparation as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil and dirt
- B. No special preparation is needed. Instruct the patient to keep his head still and stead
- C. Give a cleansing enema and give fluids until 8 AM
- D. Shave scalp and securely attach electrodes to it
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct preparation for a CT scan, in this case, does not involve any special instructions such as shampooing hair, giving an enema, or shaving the scalp. The patient is simply instructed to keep their head still and steady during the scan. CT scans do not require any specific preparation unless explicitly stated by the healthcare provider conducting the test. It is important to follow the nurse's or healthcare provider's instructions carefully to ensure the best results from the CT scan.
Which of the following intravenous solutions is hypotonic?
- A. Normal saline
- B. Ringer's lactate
- C. 0.45% saline
- D. 5% dextrose in normal saline  A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET F
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solutes compared to the cells in the body. 0.45% saline is hypotonic because it has a lower concentration of sodium chloride compared to the normal extracellular fluid in the body. When this solution is administered intravenously, water will move into the cells to balance the concentration gradient, potentially causing cellular swelling. A hypotonic solution is used to rehydrate cells in cases of hypernatremia or dehydration with cellular dehydration.