An asymptomatic 45-year old male with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation and normal echo, refused cardioversion while suggested. The next optimal management strategy for him is
- A. Sedate and cardiovert against patient wishes
- B. Aspirin
- C. Anticoagulation
- D. Rate control
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rate control is the optimal management strategy for asymptomatic atrial fibrillation when cardioversion is refused.
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Recognized features in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome include:
- A. Mutation in fibrillin gene
- B. Short stature
- C. Keratoconus
- D. Easy scarring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Easy scarring: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a connective tissue disorder characterized by hyperelastic skin, joint hypermobility, and easy bruising and scarring.
The following are true statements:
- A. Tissue plasminogen activator is derived from endothelium
- B. Heparin acts through antithrombin III
- C. Protein C deficiency is autosomal recessive transmitted
- D. Protein C is vitamin K dependent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin acts through antithrombin III: Heparin enhances the activity of antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and other clotting factors, helping prevent clot formation.
In Asia, the following hepatitis virus appears to be a significant cause of viral myocarditis
- A. hepatitis E virus
- B. hepatitis B virus
- C. hepatitis C virus
- D. hepatitis D virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatitis E virus has been identified as a significant cause of viral myocarditis in Asia.
In which congenital heart defect (CHD) would the nurse need to take upper and lower extremity BPs?
- A. Transposition of the great vessels
- B. Aortic stenosis (AS)
- C. Coarctation of the aorta (COA)
- D. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: COA causes increased blood pressure and strong pulses in the upper extremities with lower-than-expected BP and weak pulses in the lower extremities.
An 8-month-old infant has a hypercyanotic spell while blood is being drawn. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess for neurologic defects
- B. Place the child in the knee-chest position
- C. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- D. Prepare family for imminent death
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often, calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell.
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