An elderly patient brings a bag of medications to the clinic. The nurse finds bottles of medications as well as assorted pills in no containers in the bag. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Dispose of all medications that are not in properly labeled bottles.
- B. Confer with a family member about the patient's management of medication.
- C. Engage the patient in education about safe storage and labeling of medication.
- D. Ask the patient to name the purpose and date of expiration of each medication not in a bottle.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because engaging the patient in education about safe storage and labeling of medication is the priority action. This approach promotes patient understanding and empowerment in managing their medications safely. It addresses the immediate concern of the medications being improperly stored and unlabeled. Option A focuses solely on disposal without addressing the root cause. Option B involves a third party and may not address the patient's immediate needs. Option D is important but not as urgent as ensuring safe storage and labeling. Ultimately, educating the patient promotes long-term safety and adherence to medication management.
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A client who received chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 15 years to treat schizophrenia developed tardive dyskinesia as evidenced by tongue thrusting and chewing motions. The physician discontinued the chlorpromazine and prescribed Seroquel (quetiapine). As a result of this change, the nurse should carefully monitor for:
- A. Development of pseudoparkinsonism
- B. Development of dystonic reactions
- C. Improvement in tardive dyskinesia
- D. Worsening of anticholinergic symptoms
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improvement in tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, like chlorpromazine. Quetiapine (Seroquel) is an atypical antipsychotic with a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia. By discontinuing chlorpromazine and switching to quetiapine, there is a higher likelihood of improvement or resolution of tardive dyskinesia symptoms. Options A and B are incorrect as they are related to other movement disorders caused by antipsychotics. Option D is incorrect as anticholinergic symptoms are not directly related to tardive dyskinesia improvement with the medication switch.
When a patient with anorexia nervosa expresses a fear of weight gain, the nurse should respond by:
- A. Minimizing the patient's concerns to avoid anxiety.
- B. Encouraging weight loss to meet the patient's goals.
- C. Explaining that weight gain is part of the treatment plan.
- D. Agreeing with the patient's view on body image to reduce conflict.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: Explaining that weight gain is part of the treatment plan. This answer is correct because in treating anorexia nervosa, it is essential for patients to understand that weight gain is necessary for recovery and overall health improvement. By explaining this, the nurse can help the patient develop a more positive attitude towards weight gain and recognize it as a crucial aspect of the treatment process.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Minimizing the patient's concerns may invalidate their feelings and hinder therapeutic communication.
B: Encouraging weight loss would be counterproductive and reinforce the patient's negative behaviors and beliefs.
D: Simply agreeing with the patient's view on body image without addressing the need for weight gain would not promote positive change or support the patient's recovery.
Based on a recent paper by Chodavadia et al (refer to Unit 2 reference 5), the rates of symptoms of depression and anxiety amongst youth in Singapore are:
- A. 27%
- B. 7%
- C. 1%
- D. 16%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chodavadia et al. (hypothetical reference) likely aligns with regional studies showing high mental health symptom rates; 27% is consistent with Singapore youth mental health surveys (e.g., SMHS).
Which assessment data suggests a person who appears to have dementia instead has depression and pseudodementia?
- A. Demonstrates impaired judgment.
- B. Demonstrates impaired concentration.
- C. Has a history of significant losses or crises.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because impaired concentration is a key indicator of depression and pseudodementia rather than dementia. In depression, individuals may experience difficulties focusing and maintaining attention, leading to impaired concentration. Pseudodementia, which mimics dementia but is caused by depression, also presents with similar cognitive symptoms like impaired concentration. Choices A and C are incorrect because impaired judgment and significant losses or crises can be present in both dementia and depression, making them less specific to differentiating between the two conditions. Choice D is incorrect as choice B clearly distinguishes the cognitive symptomatology between dementia and depression/pseudodementia.
An example of a Developmental Disorder is:
- A. ADHD
- B. Dyslexia
- C. Mental Retardation
- D. Autistic spectrum disorders
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Autistic Spectrum Disorder (ASD): An umbrella term that refers to all disorders that display autistic style symptoms across a wide range of severity and disability.
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