Nokea
An embryo is known as a fetus during parturition? by the ________ week of pregnancy.
- A. Oxytocin increases
- B. first contractions of the uterus.
- C. second
- D. Oxytocin inhibits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: second. An embryo is known as a fetus during parturition by the second week of pregnancy. This is because by the end of the eighth week of gestation, the embryo has developed all major organs and structures, transitioning to the fetal stage. Choice A is incorrect because oxytocin increases during labor, not by the second week of pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as the first contractions of the uterus occur during labor, not during the second week of pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as oxytocin actually promotes uterine contractions during labor.
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Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) produces fluid that activates sperm.
- A. prostatic urethra
- B. ovary.
- C. prostate
- D. corpus luteum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: corpus luteum. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy. This hormone helps maintain the corpus luteum, which in turn produces progesterone to support the pregnancy. The fluid produced by the corpus luteum helps activate sperm for fertilization. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly involved in the production of hCG or the activation of sperm.
The epididymal duct:
- A. is an intratesticular spermatic duct;
- B. continues with the deferent duct;
- C. continues with the testicular efferent ducts (vas efferens);
- D. part of the extratesticular spermatic ducts.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: The epididymal duct is a coiled tube located on the posterior surface of the testis.
Step 2: It continues as the deferent duct (vas deferens) which is responsible for transporting sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.
Step 3: Therefore, choice B is correct as the epididymal duct indeed continues as the deferent duct.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - The epididymal duct is not located within the testis.
C: Incorrect - The testicular efferent ducts are separate from the epididymal duct.
D: Incorrect - The epididymal duct is considered part of the male reproductive system within the scrotum, not outside it.
During an internal examination of a patient’s anus, the nurse notes that the patient has a hypertonic sphincter. What is the most relevant action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Ask the patient about anxiety or pain related to the examination.
- B. Inquire if the patient has had any neurologic injury that causes a hypertonic sphincter.
- C. Refer the patient to the physician for evaluation.
- D. Question the patient about a history of anal trauma.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Hypertonic sphincter indicates increased muscle tone.
2. Inquiring about anxiety or pain helps assess the patient's comfort level.
3. Anxiety or pain can cause increased muscle tension.
4. Addressing emotional factors can help relax the sphincter for a more comfortable examination.
Summary:
- Option B focuses on neurologic causes, not immediate patient care.
- Option C suggests referral without addressing patient comfort.
- Option D addresses past trauma, not the current situation of hypertonic sphincter.
A woman who has never conceived a child is called as:
- A. Primipara
- B. Nulligravida
- C. Nullipara
- D. Primigravida
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nullipara. Nullipara refers to a woman who has never given birth to a child. "Nulli-" means none or zero, and "-para" refers to giving birth. This term specifically indicates the absence of any childbirth experience, regardless of pregnancy history.
A: Primipara would refer to a woman who has given birth to one child.
B: Nulligravida would refer to a woman who has never been pregnant.
D: Primigravida would refer to a woman who is pregnant for the first time.
Therefore, C is the correct choice as it accurately describes a woman who has not experienced childbirth.
You have just received change-of-shift report about your assigned clients. In what order will you assess these clients?
- A. A 68-year-old client who has new-onset confusion after having a bilateral orchiectomy.
- B. A 44-year-old client who is receiving IV antibiotics for acute pyelonephritis.
- C. A 55-year-old client who is scheduled for discharge after having a TURP.
- D. A 77-year-old client who is receiving continuous bladder irrigation after a TURP.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: New-onset confusion in a postoperative client could indicate complications such as infection or electrolyte imbalance.