Nokea
An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her fingers
- B. A 49-year-old male reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration
- C. A 53-year-old female reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen
- D. A 58-year-old male describes his pain as an intense stabbing that spreads across his chest
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intense stabbing chest pain that spreads across the chest is highly suggestive of an acute cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction, and requires immediate assessment.
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The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner is performing a well child examination on a school-age child who had complete repair of a tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) defect in infancy. What is important in this child's health maintenance regime?
- A. Cardiology clearance for sports participation
- B. Restriction of physical activity to avoid pulmonary complications
- C. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis precautions
- D. Teaching about management of hypercyanotic episodes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Children who have had TOF repair must be cleared by cardiology before participation in sports.
Which congenital cardiac defect(s) cause(s) increased pulmonary blood flow? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Atrial septal defects (ASDs)
- B. Tetralogy of Fallot
- C. Dextroposition of aorta
- D. Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The congenital heart defects that cause increased pulmonary blood flow are ASDs, VSDs, and patent ductus arteriosus.
Of the following, the cyanotic cardiac lesion with decreased pulmonary blood flow is
- A. transposition of the great vessels
- B. single ventricle
- C. truncus arteriosus
- D. tricuspid atresia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tricuspid atresia results in decreased pulmonary blood flow due to lack of right ventricular input.
All the following statements about spontaneous coronary artery dissection are true, except
- A. More common in young females
- B. Proximal coronary involvement associated with immuno-inflammatory disease
- C. Intra-coronary imaging shows 'accordion sign'
- D. Physical stress precipitates it by causing intimal tear
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 'accordion sign' is not typically associated with spontaneous coronary artery dissection.
List FOUR other cardiac manifestations for Marfan’s syndrome, aside from aortopathy.
- A. Mitral valve prolapse/regurgitation
- B. Calcification of the mitral valve <40 years
- C. Dilation of pulmonary artery
- D. Dilation or dissection of ascending/descending aorta (<50 years old)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Marfan's syndrome may involve multiple cardiac complications including mitral valve prolapse and other structural heart abnormalities.