Nokea
Francis is a 48-year-old female with elevated blood sugar level.
An immediate danger to confront Francis secondary to her elevated blood sugar level is
- A. albumin is negative.
- B. dehydration and impending shock.
- C. hyperglycemia.
- D. renal failure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glucose has an osmotic diuretic effect causing polyuria, which can lead to dehydration and impending shock if not addressed promptly.
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A young female patient comes to the physician because she has been experiencing fatigue and double vision. The physician suspects myasthenia gravis.
When obtaining information from the patient, the nurse would expect her to report that:
- A. Her level of fatigue has been constant.
- B. The longer she rests the weaker she feels.
- C. Her strength increases with progressive activity.
- D. The symptoms seem more severe in the evening.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis symptoms worsen with activity and are more severe in the evening due to muscle fatigue.
As a client progresses through pregnancy, she develops constipation. What is the primary cause of this problem during pregnancy?
- A. Decreased appetite
- B. Inadequate fluid intake
- C. Prolonged gastric emptying
- D. Reduced intestinal motility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During pregnancy, hormonal changes and mechanical pressure reduce motility in the small intestine, enhancing water absorption and promoting constipation. Although decreased appetite, inadequate fluid intake, and prolonged gastric emptying may contribute to constipation, they aren't the primary cause.
A client is receiving an I.V. infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding the most significant?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.
A newly diagnosed HIV patient is in your care. The patient has a positive PPD result of 5 mm induration and a normal CXR.
Which of the following represents preferred treatment of this patient?
- A. INH and pyridoxine
- B. IHN and Rifampin
- C. Rifampin and Streptomycin
- D. No pharmacotherapeutic regimen necessary.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: INH with pyridoxine is the standard treatment for latent TB in HIV patients with a positive PPD.
A client, age 21, is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the appropriate choice for this client?
- A. A private room down the hall from the nurses' station
- B. An isolation room close to the nurses' station
- C. A semiprivate room with a 32-year-old client who has viral meningitis
- D. A two-bed room with a client who previously had bacterial meningitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with bacterial meningitis should be kept in isolation for at least 24 hours after admission and, during the initial acute phase, should be as close to the nurses' station as possible to allow maximal observation. Placing the client in a room with a client who has viral meningitis may cause harm to both clients because the organisms causing viral and bacterial meningitis differ; either client may contract the other's disease. Immunity to bacterial meningitis can't be acquired; therefore, a client who previously had bacterial meningitis shouldn't be put at risk by rooming with a client who has just been diagnosed with this disease.