Nokea
An infant is born with a 7 cm × 6 cm lesion over the upper extremity from the elbow to the shoulder. The lesion is indurated and purpuric, with some petechiae around the edges. No other areas of petechiae are noted on the skin. The infant is doing well without other systemic problems. i were 9 and 9. You are called by the pediatric nurse practitioner to the NICU. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Do nothing because the infant is doing well and had good Apgars.
- B. Obtain an ultrasound for more information about the lesion.
- C. Obtain an MRI to assess the extent of the lesion.
- D. Obtain labs, including a CBC with platelet count and fibrinogen.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct next step is D: Obtain labs, including a CBC with platelet count and fibrinogen. This is the most appropriate action because the infant presents with an indurated and purpuric lesion with petechiae, suggesting a possible coagulation disorder. Labs can help assess for any underlying hematologic abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because it is important to investigate further given the concerning presentation.
Choice B is not the best next step as an ultrasound would not provide information on the hematologic status.
Choice C is also not the best option as an MRI is not typically used to assess coagulation disorders.
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A 12-year-old patient has been referred to you following complete resection with clean margins of a high-grade malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the shoulder region. The tumor measured approximately 4 cm in greatest dimension. A CT scan of the chest and a bone scan were within normal limits. The patient does not have evidence of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Which of the following treatment approaches would you recommend?
- A. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide
- B. Radiotherapy
- C. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide plus radiotherapy
- D. Observation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation. In this case, the patient has undergone complete resection of the tumor with clean margins and there is no evidence of metastasis or neurofibromatosis type 1. Given these factors, observation is the most appropriate approach as there is no indication for adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide (Choice A) is typically reserved for cases with high-risk features such as incomplete resection or metastasis. Radiotherapy (Choice B) may be considered in certain cases, but in this scenario where surgery was curative and there is no evidence of spread, it is not necessary. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy (Choice C) may be overly aggressive and carry unnecessary risks for a patient who has already had successful surgery. Thus, observation is the most appropriate approach in this situation.
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
- A. Hgb 8.7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fL, serum ferritin 2 ng/mL
- B. Hgb 12.0 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- C. Hgb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 60 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- D. Hgb 11.2 g/dL, MCV 90 fL, serum ferritin 7 ng/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates iron deficiency anemia. The low Hgb of 8.7 g/dL is below normal range for his age. The MCV of 60 fL is low, indicating microcytic anemia which is characteristic of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL is very low, supporting the diagnosis.
Choice B is incorrect as the Hgb and MCV are within normal range, and the ferritin level is not indicative of iron deficiency. Choice C has a low Hgb but normal MCV and ferritin level. Choice D has a normal Hgb and low ferritin, but the MCV is high, inconsistent with iron deficiency anemia.
The mean cell volume of the patient is 90 fl and the reticulocyte production index is low. Which of the following is the most possible cause of anemia in this patient?
- A. Thalassemia
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Aplastic anemia
- D. Sideroblastic anemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a low reticulocyte production index due to bone marrow failure, leading to decreased red blood cell production and subsequently causing anemia. Thalassemia (choice A) is a genetic disorder resulting in abnormal hemoglobin production, not bone marrow failure. Vitamin B12 deficiency (choice B) can lead to macrocytic anemia, not a low reticulocyte production index. Sideroblastic anemia (choice D) is characterized by abnormal iron metabolism in the bone marrow, not bone marrow failure.
Hepato-splenomegaly with lymphadenopathy occur in all except:
- A. ALL
- B. lymphoma
- C. CML
- D. dissiminated TB
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) primarily involves the bone marrow and blood, not the liver, spleen, or lymph nodes.
2. Hepato-splenomegaly with lymphadenopathy are commonly seen in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) and lymphoma.
3. Disseminated TB can cause hepato-splenomegaly but typically does not present with lymphadenopathy.
Therefore, C (CML) is the correct answer as it does not typically present with the described findings.
The nurse is documenting findings after completing data collection with a patient. What term should the nurse use to document a large area of discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin?
- A. Pallor
- B. Rubor
- C. Petechiae
- D. Ecchymosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct term for a large area of discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin is "Ecchymosis" (Choice D). Ecchymosis refers to the medical term for a bruise, which is characterized by a large area of skin discoloration caused by bleeding beneath the skin due to trauma or injury. Pallor (Choice A) refers to paleness of the skin due to decreased blood flow or anemia, not discoloration from hemorrhage. Rubor (Choice B) refers to redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, not discoloration from hemorrhage. Petechiae (Choice C) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin caused by broken capillaries, not a large area of discoloration from hemorrhage as described in the question.