Nokea
Half life of plat. Is:
- A. 1-2days
- B. 3-4days
- C. 5-6days
- D. 7-8days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3-4 days. The half-life of a substance is the time it takes for half of the original amount to decay. In this case, since the half-life of platinum is 3-4 days, it means that after 3-4 days, half of the initial amount of platinum will have decayed. This answer is correct because it accurately represents the time frame for platinum decay. The other choices are incorrect because they do not correspond to the known half-life of platinum. Choice A (1-2 days), C (5-6 days), and D (7-8 days) are outside the typical half-life range for platinum, making them incorrect options.
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A peripheral blood smear showing increase in numbers of neutrophils, band cells, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is most suggestive
- A. Acute myeloid leukemia
- B. Acute lymphoid leukemia
- C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
- D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: A peripheral blood smear showing an increase in neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is indicative of Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML). Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are myeloid lineage cells typically elevated in CML. The presence of increased platelets is also common in CML due to the overproduction of cells in the bone marrow.
Summary of other choices:
A: Acute myeloid leukemia - Typically presents with a predominance of immature myeloid cells like blasts, rather than an increase in mature myeloid cells.
B: Acute lymphoid leukemia - Primarily involves lymphoid lineage cells, not myeloid cells as seen in the blood smear.
D: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia - Characterized by an increase in mature lymphocytes, not myeloid cells like neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.
The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving a blood product and is concerned that the blood is going to deteriorate before it is complete infused. What is the maximum time that blood can hang during infusion before it begins to deteriorate?
- A. 1 hour
- B. 2 hours
- C. 3 hours
- D. 4 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 hours. Blood products typically have a maximum hang time of 4 hours to reduce the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure the integrity of the product. Beyond this time, there is an increased risk of bacterial growth, which can lead to serious infections in the patient. It is crucial to adhere to the recommended hang time to maintain the safety and efficacy of the blood product.
Summary of other choices:
A: 1 hour - Too short of a time frame for a blood product to be infused, as it would not allow for the complete administration.
B: 2 hours - While closer to the correct answer, it still falls short of the recommended 4-hour maximum hang time for blood products.
C: 3 hours - Again, this is not the optimal choice as it exceeds the safe hang time for blood products, increasing the risk of contamination and deterioration.
A laboratory finding of granulocytosis
- A. Complete absence of peripheral blood granulocytes and their precursors in the bone marrow
- B. Acute bacterial infections
- C. Myeloproliferative disorders
- D. Increased numbers of granulocytes in blood and bone marrow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because granulocytosis refers to an increase in granulocytes in both blood and bone marrow. This finding is commonly seen in conditions such as infections and inflammatory processes. The other choices are incorrect because A describes agranulocytosis, B is a potential cause of granulocytosis, and C typically involves abnormal proliferation of myeloid cells rather than just granulocytes.
A 5-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of his right eye “not moving to the right side.†The remainder of his neurologic exam is normal with the exception of a weak gag. MRI of the brain reveals a diffusely infiltrative mass in the pons. If this patient were to undergo a stereotactic biopsy, what would be the most likely molecular finding?
- A. BRAFKIAA1549 fusion
- B. Trisomy 21
- C. H3 K27M mutation
- D. RELA fusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: H3 K27M mutation. This mutation is most commonly associated with diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPG), which are high-grade brain tumors typically found in children. The presence of a diffusely infiltrative mass in the pons in a 5-year-old boy with neurological symptoms points towards a DIPG. Stereotactic biopsy of the mass would likely reveal the H3 K27M mutation, which is a key molecular finding in DIPG.
Choice A (BRAFKIAA1549 fusion) is incorrect as this fusion is typically associated with pilocytic astrocytomas, not DIPGs. Choice B (Trisomy 21) is incorrect as it is not a molecular finding commonly associated with DIPGs. Choice D (RELA fusion) is also incorrect as this fusion is more commonly seen in ependymomas, not DIPGs.
A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is receiving alteplase following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the client to be taking in addition to the alteplase?
- A. Protamine
- B. Desmopressin
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Heparin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heparin. Following an acute MI, a client receiving alteplase may also be prescribed heparin to prevent re-thrombosis and further clot formation. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that works by breaking down clots, while heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent new clots from forming. Protamine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not typically administered alongside alteplase. Desmopressin (choice B) is used for conditions like diabetes insipidus, unrelated to MI treatment. Ferrous sulfate (choice C) is an iron supplement, not indicated in this scenario.