Nokea
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
- C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
- D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
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Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
- A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
- B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
- C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
- D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.
Is it true that Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be spread through hugging, sneezing, coughing, sharing eating utensils, and other forms of casual contact?
- A. True
- B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: False. HCV is not spread through casual contact such as hugging, sneezing, or sharing eating utensils. The correct modes of transmission for HCV include direct contact with human blood through blood transfusions, improperly sterilized needles and syringes, needle sharing, or occasionally through sexual contact. Therefore, the statement is false, making 'False' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the mode of transmission of HCV.
A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
- A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
- B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
- C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
- D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.
While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?
- A. Abdominal respirations
- B. Inspiratory grunt
- C. Nasal flaring
- D. Cyanosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.