Nokea
Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?
- A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
- B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
- C. Positive statements precede negative statements
- D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.
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Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?
- A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
- B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
- C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
- D. The nurse discusses the client's health history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.
An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
- A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
- B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
- C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
- D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.
An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
- A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
- B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
- C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
- D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
A nursing student is teaching a patient and family about epilepsy prior to the patient's discharge. For which statement should you intervene?
- A. "You should avoid consumption of all forms of alcohol."?
- B. "Wear your medical alert bracelet at all times."?
- C. "Protect your loved one's airway during a seizure."?
- D. "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is, "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."? Patients with epilepsy should not take over-the-counter medications without medical advice due to potential interactions with antiepileptic drugs or triggering seizures. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a patient with epilepsy, focusing on alcohol avoidance, wearing a medical alert bracelet, and airway protection during a seizure, respectively. Choice D is incorrect because patients with epilepsy need to be cautious about medications due to possible interactions or adverse effects, so consulting with a physician is crucial before taking over-the-counter medications.