Nokea
An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?
- A. A client taking allopurinol for gout states they have been taking black cohosh to help with post-menopausal symptoms.
- B. A client has an order for warfarin and states they have been taking Ginkgo biloba to improve their memory.
- C. A client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost.
- D. A client has a prescription for an SSRI and states they have been taking St. John's wort to also help with their depression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.
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A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.
What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol)?
- A. 7-12 mcg/mL
- B. 4-10 mcg/mL
- C. 10-14 mcg/mL
- D. 1-5 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol) is 4-10 mcg/mL. This range is established based on the optimal balance between effectiveness and safety. Choices A, C, and D are outside the therapeutic range for carbamazepine, which could lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or increased risk of toxicity. Choice B (4-10 mcg/mL) is the correct range recommended for therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects.
During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?
- A. "The client said they have been taking aspirin, but I'm not sure for how long or how much."?
- B. "The client frequently takes antacids, but they have not taken any in the last three days."?
- C. "The client stopped taking ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers."?
- D. "The client takes Antabuse and has stopped using mouthwash."?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.