Nokea
An NP is caring for a 70-year-old patient who reports having seasonal allergies with severe rhinorrhea. Using the Beers criteria, which of the following medications should the NP recommend for this patient?
- A. Loratadine (Claritin)
- B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Chlorpheniramine maleate (Chlorphen 12)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because loratadine is a nonsedating antihistamine, safer for elderly per Beers criteria, unlike the sedating options B, C, and D, which increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.
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The primary care NP sees a 5-year-old child for a prekindergarten physical examination. The child's parents do not have immunization records, and a local record search does not provide proof of vaccinations, although the parent thinks the child may have had some vaccines several years ago. The NP's initial action will be to:
- A. assume the child is unvaccinated and start the full series.
- B. check titers for all vaccine-preventable diseases.
- C. administer a single dose of each vaccine today.
- D. consult state immunization registry again.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because without records, assuming unvaccinated and starting the series ensures protection. Choice B is incorrect (titers not practical initially). Choice C is wrong (single doses insufficient). Choice D is inaccurate (registry already checked).
Women who are prescribed drugs that are known teratogens should:
- A. Use effective contraception
- B. Avoid breastfeeding
- C. Increase their vitamin intake
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because teratogenic drugs can harm a fetus, so effective contraception is essential to prevent pregnancy during treatment, per safety guidelines. Choice B is incorrect as breastfeeding avoidance applies post-delivery, not during prescribing. Choice C is wrong because increasing vitamins doesn't mitigate teratogenic risk. Choice D is incorrect since only contraception directly addresses the primary risk.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration:
- A. Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
- B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
- C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
- D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the DEA registers those handling controlled substances, issuing numbers for tracking and prescribing, its primary role. Choice B is incorrect as state boards, not the DEA, regulate NP prescribing. Choice C is wrong because off-label prescribing isn't DEA-regulated. Choice D is incorrect since the DEA number is for controlled substances, not insurance billing.
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
- A. inhibitor.
- B. substrate.
- C. inducer.
- D. metabolizer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a CYP450 inhibitor (drug A) reduces metabolism of drug B, increasing its effects. Choice B is incorrect as a substrate is acted upon, not inhibiting. Choice C is wrong since an inducer increases metabolism, reducing effects. Choice D is inaccurate as 'metabolizer' isn’t a CYP450 role.
Risks associated with polypharmacy include:
- A. Increased adverse drug reactions
- B. Drug-drug interactions
- C. Nonadherence
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because polypharmacy raises ADR risk (more drugs, more side effects), interactions (competing metabolism), and nonadherence (complex regimens), per geriatric studies. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one risk. Choice B is wrong by itself because interactions are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since nonadherence is only one issue.