Nokea
An older man is concerned about his sexual performance. The nurse knows that in the absence of disease, a withdrawal from sexual activity later in life may be attributable to:
- A. Side effects of medications.
- B. Decreased libido with aging.
- C. Decreased sperm production.
- D. Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Side effects of medications. As people age, they are more likely to be on multiple medications, some of which can have side effects like erectile dysfunction or decreased libido, leading to a withdrawal from sexual activity. This is a common issue for older adults.
Choice B (Decreased libido with aging) is incorrect because while libido may decrease with age, it is not usually the sole reason for a complete withdrawal from sexual activity.
Choice C (Decreased sperm production) is incorrect as it is not directly related to a withdrawal from sexual activity in older men.
Choice D (Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse) is incorrect as pleasure can still be experienced regardless of age, and it is unlikely to be the primary reason for withdrawal.
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A patient has undergone the creation of an Indiana been asked about actions to reduce the risk of bladder pouch for the treatment of bladder cancer. The nurse
- A. addresses a major risk factor for bladder cancer? How can the nurse best address the effects of this
- B. Smoking cessation urinary diversion on the patients body image?
- C. Reduction of alcohol intake
- D. Emphasize that the diversion is an integral part of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because addressing a major risk factor for bladder cancer, such as smoking, is crucial in preventing recurrence. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for bladder cancer, so educating the patient on smoking cessation is essential. This step can significantly reduce the risk of developing bladder cancer again.
Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on body image concerns, which are important but not directly related to reducing the risk of bladder cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while reducing alcohol intake is beneficial for overall health, it is not a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address a specific risk factor for bladder cancer like smoking does.
A patient is being treated with furosemide and Digoxin because of CHF. She * developed UTI. Which of the following antibiotics should NOT be prescribed?
- A. Cotrimoxazole
- B. Ciprooxacin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamycin. Gentamycin is not recommended in this case due to its potential for nephrotoxicity, especially in patients already receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can also cause kidney damage, so combining it with Gentamycin increases the risk of further renal impairment. Cotrimoxazole (A) and Ampicillin (D) are commonly used antibiotics that do not have significant interactions with furosemide and Digoxin. Ciprofloxacin (B) is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is generally safe to use in patients with CHF and UTI.
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she wets herself a little. She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
- A. Dysuria.
- B. Stress incontinence.
- C. Hematuria.
- D. Urge incontinence.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stress incontinence. This is the most likely issue because the patient leaks urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing or coughing. Stress incontinence is due to weakened pelvic floor muscles and sphincter, leading to leakage with exertion. Dysuria (choice A) is painful urination, not related to leakage. Hematuria (choice C) is blood in urine, not related to leakage. Urge incontinence (choice D) involves a sudden, strong urge to urinate and is not triggered by sneezing or coughing.
Which statement concerning the testes is true?
- A. The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the abdominal lymph nodes.
- B. The vas deferens is located along the inferior portion of each testis.
- C. The right testis is lower than the left because the right spermatic cord is longer.
- D. The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body. This is true because the cremaster muscle is responsible for regulating the position of the testicles in response to temperature changes to maintain optimal conditions for sperm production. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes, not the abdominal lymph nodes. B: The vas deferens is a duct that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra, not located along the inferior portion of each testis. C: The difference in height between the testes is due to differences in the descent of the testes during fetal development, not the length of the spermatic cord.
The following drug may cure typhoid fever, but does not prevent development of carrier state:
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Cotrimoxazole
- D. Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Chloramphenicol is effective in curing typhoid fever by targeting the bacteria causing the infection.
2. However, chloramphenicol does not effectively eradicate the bacteria from the carrier state.
3. Ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole are also effective in treating typhoid fever but do not specifically target the carrier state.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Chloramphenicol, as it cures typhoid fever but does not prevent the carrier state.