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An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?
- A. Diverticular bleed
- B. Duodenal ulcer
- C. Inflammatory bowel disease
- D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely cause of bleeding in this case is a duodenal ulcer (Choice B). The key clues are severe hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, normal barium enema a year ago, and orthostatic changes in blood pressure and pulse. Severe hematochezia suggests a significant upper gastrointestinal bleed. Normal barium enema rules out lower GI sources. Orthostatic changes in blood pressure and pulse are indicative of acute blood loss. Duodenal ulcers are a common cause of upper GI bleeding and can present with hematochezia. In contrast, diverticular bleeds (Choice A) typically present with painless rectal bleeding, inflammatory bowel disease (Choice C) often presents with chronic blood loss and anemia, and vascular ectasia (Choice D) typically causes chronic, slow bleeding.
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A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?
- A. The baby should be delivered immediately
- B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
- C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
- D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery. The presentation of elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in a pregnant woman at 34 weeks with no signs of severe preeclampsia suggests cholestasis of pregnancy. This condition typically resolves after delivery. The absence of fetal distress and normal maternal blood pressure indicate that immediate delivery is not necessary. There is a risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies, so choice C is incorrect. Screening for LCHAD deficiency is not indicated in this scenario, as the presentation is more consistent with cholestasis of pregnancy.
The client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should be made?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your alcohol intake to two drinks per day.
- C. Engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week.
- D. Use table salt liberally to season your food.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, engaging in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week. Regular exercise helps lower blood pressure by strengthening the heart, improving blood flow, and reducing stress. It also helps with weight management, which is crucial for hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because saturated fats can increase the risk of heart disease and worsen hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because excessive alcohol intake can raise blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because excessive salt intake can lead to high blood pressure. Overall, regular exercise is a key lifestyle modification for managing hypertension.
A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be
- A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
- B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
- C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
- D. Barium enema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole. This patient likely has diverticulitis given his age, comorbidities, symptoms, and imaging findings. Antibiotic therapy is the initial management for uncomplicated diverticulitis to cover for common pathogens. Surgical intervention is not indicated in the absence of complications like perforation or abscess. Urgent colonoscopy or barium enema are contraindicated during an acute episode of diverticulitis due to the risk of perforation. Antibiotic therapy aims to resolve the infection and prevent complications.
A 60-year-old woman presents with pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas. Laboratory tests reveal elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Primary biliary cirrhosis.
Rationale:
1. Pruritus, jaundice, and xanthomas are classic symptoms of cholestatic liver disease.
2. Elevated cholesterol and alkaline phosphatase levels are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis.
3. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune disease affecting small bile ducts, leading to liver damage.
4. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (B) presents with similar symptoms but typically affects larger bile ducts.
5. Gallstones (C) could cause jaundice but would not explain the elevated cholesterol levels.
6. Pancreatic cancer (D) may present with jaundice but is less likely given the specific lab findings.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
- B. Take aspirin for headaches.
- C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use a soft-bristled toothbrush. Patients on warfarin are at risk for bleeding due to its anticoagulant effect. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding and injury to the gums, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Avoiding green leafy vegetables (choice A) is not necessary, as consistent intake is key for warfarin dosing. Taking aspirin (choice B) can increase the risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not indicated in this case.