Nokea
Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
- A. Labia majora
- B. Labia minor
- C. Mons pubis
- D. Cervical sphincter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Labia majora. The labia majora are located anterior to the vagina and urethral openings, providing protection and support. The labia minora are internal to the labia majora. The mons pubis is the rounded mass of fatty tissue located over the pubic symphysis. Cervical sphincter is not a relevant anatomical structure in this context. Therefore, the labia majora is the correct choice based on its anatomical location and function.
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Which of the following has no homolog in the female?
- A. penis
- B. scrotum
- C. prostate
- D. bulbourethral glands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: scrotum. The scrotum is a male-specific structure that houses the testes, which are responsible for producing sperm. In females, there is no homologous structure that serves the same function as the scrotum. The other choices (A: penis, C: prostate, D: bulbourethral glands) have homologous structures in females (clitoris, Skene's glands, and Bartholin's glands, respectively). This differentiation is based on the embryological development of male and female reproductive structures.
A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow. She tells the nurse that she has saturated three tampons in the past 2 hours. The nurse estimates that the amount of blood loss over the past 2 hours is _____ mL.
- A. 20 to 30
- B. 40 to 60
- C. 30 to 40
- D. 60 to 90
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (40 to 60 mL) because a typical tampon can absorb around 20 mL of blood. If the woman has saturated three tampons in 2 hours, that would be 3 tampons x 20 mL each = 60 mL. This indicates a significant blood loss. The other choices are incorrect because they do not account for the volume of blood absorbed by the tampons and underestimate the amount of blood loss. Choice A is too low, choices C and D are too high. The correct estimation of 40 to 60 mL aligns with the information provided and reflects the severity of the situation.
Which of the following would a nurse suggest for a client with an inflammation of the prostate gland?
- A. Treat the client and also his sexual partners.
- B. Avoid standing for long periods and foods that cause diarrhea.
- C. No masturbation or sexual intercourse until treated.
- D. Avoid foods that may cause acidity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Abstinence from sexual activity until treatment is complete helps prevent exacerbation and transmission.
A client is undergoing sentinel lymph node mapping. A nurse explains that this new technique reduces the likelihood of which
- A. Lymphedema
- B. Excessive scarring
- C. Cellulitis
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sentinel lymph node mapping helps reduce the risk of lymphedema by limiting the number of lymph nodes removed.
During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle is quiescent. During the 9th month of gestation the uterine muscle becomes progressively more excitable. What factors contribute to the increase in excitability?
- A. Placental estrogen synthesis rises to high rates
- B. Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases
- C. Uterine blood flow reaches its highest rate
- D. Prostaglandin E2 synthesis by the placenta decreases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone synthesis by the placenta decreases. Progesterone maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions. As progesterone levels decline towards the end of pregnancy, the uterine muscle becomes more excitable. Placental estrogen synthesis (Choice A) does not directly affect uterine excitability. Uterine blood flow (Choice C) is not a direct factor in uterine muscle excitability. Prostaglandin E2 (Choice D) actually increases towards the end of pregnancy, contributing to uterine contractions rather than decreasing excitability.