Nokea
Antibodies are made of which of the following types of substances?
- A. Fat
- B. Protein
- C. Sugar
- D. Carbohydrates CARE OF PATIENTS WITH IMMUNE DISORDERS
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein. Antibodies are a type of protein produced by the immune system to help identify and neutralize pathogens like bacteria and viruses. Proteins are composed of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Antibodies have a specific structure that allows them to bind to specific antigens. Fat (A), Sugar (C), and Carbohydrates (D) are not primary components of antibodies and do not play a significant role in their structure or function.
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A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
- A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
- B. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at
- C. Spontaneous abortion at age 19 age 27
- D. Human papilloma virus infection at age 32
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer as it can lead to cellular changes in the cervix. Here's the rationale:
1. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth in the cervix.
2. Persistent HPV infection is a major risk factor for developing cervical cancer.
3. Age 32 is within the typical age range for HPV infection and the development of cervical cancer.
4. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, which is HPV infection.
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
- A. “An evaluation helps you determine whether all nursing interventions were completed.”
- B. “During evaluation, you determine when to downsize staffing on nursing units.”
- C. “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.”
- D. “Evaluation eliminates unnecessary paperwork and care planning.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care.
Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
- A. Primary
- B. Isolated systolic
- C. Secondary
- D. Hypertensive emergency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolated systolic hypertension. This is because in isolated systolic hypertension, the systolic blood pressure is elevated while the diastolic blood pressure remains normal. This condition is common in older adults and is often related to aging and stiffening of the arteries. Primary hypertension (A) typically involves both elevated systolic and diastolic pressures. Secondary hypertension (C) is caused by an underlying condition. Hypertensive emergency (D) is characterized by severe elevations in both systolic and diastolic pressures with acute target organ damage.
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
- A. At the time of discharge from an acute health care setting
- B. At the time of admission to an acute health care setting
- C. Before admission to an acute health care setting
- D. When the client is at home after acute care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation.
2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources.
3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission.
4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Why should clients who take warfarin (Coumadin) refrain from food items such as green leafy vegetables and soybeans?
- A. Because the foods contain Vitamin K, which reduces the anti coagulant effect of the medication
- B. Because the foods contain Vitamin K, which increases the anti coagulant effect of the medication
- C. Because the foods help stimulate salivation
- D. Because the foods minimize the volume of food consumption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because green leafy vegetables and soybeans are high in Vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. By consuming Vitamin K-rich foods, the medication's effectiveness is reduced, leading to an increased risk of blood clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific interaction between Vitamin K and warfarin in affecting coagulation. Choice B suggests the opposite effect of what actually occurs. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the pharmacological mechanism of warfarin.