Nokea
Appropriate statements concerning radiology and trauma interventional radiology include:
- A. To rule out injury of the cervical spine in the unconscious patient, application of a protocol involving a computed tomography (CT) scan to the neck is recommended.
- B. A FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) scan is a specific investigation for assessment of intraperitoneal bleeding.
- C. In a patient who is persistently hypotensive in the emergency department despite adequate fluid resuscitation, radiological interventions to treat bleeding caused by a pelvic fracture are not recommended.
- D. Interventional radiology has a role in the management of injuries to the liver, kidney and spleen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trauma radiology optimizes diagnosis and intervention. CT is the gold standard for cervical spine assessment in unconscious patients, per NICE guidelines, offering high sensitivity for fractures/ligamentous injury versus plain films. FAST scans detect free fluid (e.g., blood) intraperitoneally but lack specificity positive findings need confirmation (e.g., CT). Persistent hypotension with pelvic fracture warrants interventional radiology (e.g., embolization), not dismissal contrary to the statement. Interventional radiology manages solid organ injuries (liver, kidney, spleen) via embolization, reducing surgical need. Staffing in radiology matches theatre for critical cases. CT's diagnostic precision in cervical spine trauma ensures timely, accurate management, critical in unconscious patients where clinical exam is unreliable.
You may also like to solve these questions
The Pulmonary rehabilitation program consists of several specific components. Which of the following are not a part of the program?
- A. Education and self-management
- B. Exercise training
- C. Coping measures to relieve anxiety, depression and changes in behaviour
- D. Spirometry
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pulmonary rehab builds COPD strength education, exercise, coping tools for mind and mood, all in. Spirometry's a test, not therapy diagnoses, doesn't train. Nurses skip it here, a chronic fix's focus.
A 72 years old man is diagnosed to have Type 2 DM, hypertension and hyperlipidemia with stage 3 chronic kidney disease. He is otherwise well and asymptomatic. He is referred to you for follow-up care. His blood pressure is 142/70 mmHg with HbA1c 6.5%. You would continue his following medications EXCEPT
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg OD
- B. Simvastatin 40 mg ON
- C. Aspirin 100 mg OD
- D. Glibenclamide 10 mg bid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stage 3 CKD eGFR 30-59 means glibenclamide's out; it piles up, risking hypoglycemia in shaky kidneys. Thiazide holds BP, simvastatin guards lipids, aspirin shields heart, irbesartan protects kidneys all stay. Nurses swap sulphonylureas here, dodging chronic sugar crashes in fragile renal states.
A nurse in the oncology clinic is providing preoperative education to a client just diagnosed with cancer. The client has been scheduled for surgery in 3 days. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Call the client at home the next day to review teaching.
- B. Give the client information about a cancer support group.
- C. Provide all the preoperative instructions in writing.
- D. Reassure the client that surgery will be over soon.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A new cancer diagnosis combined with the urgency of surgery in three days can overwhelm a client, impairing their ability to process and retain preoperative instructions due to emotional stress and anxiety. Calling the client the next day to review teaching allows the nurse to reinforce key points, answer questions, and ensure comprehension when the client may be calmer and more receptive. While providing written instructions is helpful, it assumes literacy and may not address immediate confusion or emotional barriers. Offering support group information is valuable for long-term coping but doesn't prioritize the urgent need for surgical preparation. Reassuring the client that surgery will be over soon dismisses their concerns and doesn't enhance understanding. The follow-up call is the best action, as it aligns with adult learning principles and nursing's role in ensuring informed consent and readiness, reducing perioperative risks and anxiety for the client.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with atherosclerosis. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of this disorder?
- A. Diet high in vitamin K
- B. Low HDL-C/High LDL-C
- C. High HDL-C/Low LDL-C
- D. Vegan diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerosis loves lipids low HDL (good cholesterol) and high LDL (bad cholesterol) pile plaque, a prime risk factor driving vessel narrowing. Vitamin K aids clotting, not plaque. High HDL/low LDL protects. Vegan diets cut fats, lowering risk. Nurses flag lipid imbalance, pushing statins or diet shifts, a cholesterol-fueled root of this vascular scourge.
Which of the following statements is incorrect in describing the ADEC categorisation of drugs for Pregnancy?
- A. They are based on animal reproductive toxicology
- B. They are based on evidence available at the time of introduction of the drug
- C. The categorisations are revised as new evidence become available
- D. They are based on prospective studies
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ADEC's pregnancy drug tags lean on animal data, initial evidence, and updates not prospective human studies, a gap. Animal tox sets baselines, launch data locks in, new proof shifts prospective's too slow. Pharmacists read this, a chronic caution grid.