Nokea
Assuming that adherence has been excellent, which of the following should have returned to normal 6 weeks following appropriate oral iron treatment for a child with severe dietary iron deficiency (hemoglobin [Hgb] 5.0 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume [MCV] 48 fL at the beginning of therapy)?
- A. Hgb concentration
- B. MCV
- C. Red cell distribution width
- D. Peripheral blood smear
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Hemoglobin (Hgb) reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells.
2. Severe dietary iron deficiency causes low Hgb levels.
3. Adequate iron treatment should lead to increased Hgb levels.
4. MCV and other parameters may take longer to normalize.
Summary:
B, C, and D are incorrect because MCV and red cell distribution width may take longer to normalize, and peripheral blood smear changes may persist even after Hgb has returned to normal.
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A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8
- B. Client with a platelet count of 128000/mm³
- C. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds
- D. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged clotting time, putting the client at risk for bleeding. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
Choice A (INR of 2.8) is within the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulant therapy, so it does not require immediate attention.
Choice B (platelet count of 128000/mm³) is low but not critically low enough to warrant immediate action unless there are signs of active bleeding.
Choice D (red blood cell count of 5.1 million/L) is within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent issue.
A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with significant menstrual bleeding at the onset of menarche and is noted to have a hemoglobin of 9.9, although she is not symptomatic from her anemia. Her mother reports that she has a history of epistaxis when she was a child with some episodes lasting 30 minutes and that she also has heavy menstrual bleeding. Which of the following tests will lead to the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Factor XI level
- B. Factor X level
- C. Factor XIII level
- D. Ristoectin cofactor activity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ristoectin cofactor activity. This patient's history of significant menstrual bleeding, epistaxis, and low hemoglobin suggests a congenital bleeding disorder. Ristoectin cofactor activity is a test for von Willebrand disease (VWD), a common inherited bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor. VWD typically presents with mucocutaneous bleeding, such as epistaxis and menorrhagia.
Choice A: Factor XI level is not the most likely diagnosis as Factor XI deficiency (Hemophilia C) typically presents with bleeding after surgery or trauma, not mucocutaneous bleeding.
Choice B: Factor X level is not the most likely diagnosis as Factor X deficiency presents with bleeding that is more severe and can cause hemarthrosis, not typically seen in this patient.
Choice C: Factor XIII level is not the most likely diagnosis as Factor XIII deficiency leads to delayed wound healing and poor clot formation,
A patient is presented with fever, vomiting, hypotension and facial edema after his business trip back from Africa. Viral hemorrhagic fever is suspected in this patient. Which of the following family does the suspected virus belong to?
- A. Filovirus
- B. Togavirus
- C. Adenovirus
- D. Bunyavirus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filovirus. Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg viruses, are known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers and are commonly found in Africa. The symptoms presented by the patient align with those of filovirus infections. Togavirus (choice B) and Bunyavirus (choice D) are not typically associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Adenovirus (choice C) can cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections but is not known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers.
A nurse is caring for a client who recently started alteplase therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Bronchodilation
- B. Headache
- C. Edema
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Headache. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can increase the risk of bleeding, including intracranial bleeding, leading to headaches. Monitoring for headaches is crucial to detect any signs of bleeding. Bronchodilation (A) is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Edema (C) and hypertension (D) are also not typically associated with alteplase therapy. Monitoring for headache is essential for early detection of potentially life-threatening complications.
A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which client would the nurse assess first?
- A. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8
- B. Client with a platelet count of 128,000/mm3 (128 x 109/L).
- C. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds
- D. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/mcl. (5.1 x 1012/L)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds. A PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, indicating the client's clotting ability. A PT of 28 seconds is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding risk. This client should be assessed first to prevent any complications related to inadequate clotting.
A: Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 - Although an elevated INR indicates a risk of bleeding, it is not as time-sensitive as a prolonged PT.
B: Client with a platelet count of 128,000/mm3 - While low platelets can lead to bleeding, a prolonged PT is more critical for immediate assessment.
D: Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/mcl - This value is within normal range and does not indicate an urgent issue related to clotting.