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At 10 weeks gestation, a primigravida asks the nurse what is occurring developmentally with her baby. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. The skin is wrinkled and fat is being formed.
- B. The eyelids are open and he can see.
- C. The kidneys are making urine.
- D. The heart is being developed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - The kidneys are making urine.
Rationale: At 10 weeks gestation, the kidneys of the developing fetus begin to form and function, producing urine. This is a crucial milestone in fetal development as it indicates proper organ formation and functionality. The formation of urine by the kidneys plays a significant role in maintaining the amniotic fluid levels and supporting overall fetal growth and development.
Summary of other choices:
A: The skin is wrinkled and fat is being formed - Incorrect. Skin and fat formation typically occur later in gestation, not at 10 weeks.
B: The eyelids are open and he can see - Incorrect. Eye development is still in progress at 10 weeks, and the eyelids remain fused.
D: The heart is being developed - Incorrect. While the heart is forming at 10 weeks, it is not the most accurate response to the question posed by the primigravida.
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A new client's pregnancy is confirmed at 10 weeks gestation. Her history reveals that her first two pregnancies ended in spontaneous abortion at 12 and 20 weeks. She has a 4-year-old and a set of 1-year-old twins. How should the nurse record the client's current gravida and para status?
- A. Gravida 2, para 3
- B. Gravida 4, para 2
- C. Gravida 5, para 2
- D. Gravida 5, para 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gravida 5, para 2. Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. The client is currently pregnant (1), had two spontaneous abortions (2), a 4-year-old (3), and a set of 1-year-old twins (4-5). Para refers to the number of viable births (past the age of viability). The client has a 4-year-old and a set of 1-year-old twins, totaling 2 live births. Therefore, the correct status is Gravida 5, para 2.
Choice A (Gravida 2, para 3) is incorrect because it does not account for the client's current pregnancy and the twins. Choice B (Gravida 4, para 2) is incorrect as it overlooks the client's previous spontaneous abortions. Choice D (Gravida 5, para 4) is incorrect as it includes all
A labor and delivery nurse suspects that a client is in the transition stage of labor. Which information supports this conclusion? The client is:
- A. walking around the unit and talking with her partner.
- B. irritable and needs frequent repetition of directions.
- C. expelling feces and the fetal head is crowning.
- D. reading a magazine and talking on the phone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In the transition stage of labor, the cervix dilates from 8 to 10 cm. This stage is characterized by intense contractions, increased irritability, and the need for frequent repetition of directions due to the intensity of labor pain. The client being irritable and needing frequent repetition of directions indicates that she is likely in the transition stage of labor.
A: Walking around and talking with her partner is more indicative of the early stage of labor.
C: Expelling feces and the fetal head crowning are more indicative of the second stage of labor.
D: Reading a magazine and talking on the phone are not typical behaviors during the transition stage of labor.
The parents of a 5-month-old infant state that their infant seems to eat very little. Most of the food comes out of the infant's mouth and onto his clothes.
- A. "Give the baby a bottle of formula before solid food to assure adequate caloric intake."'
- B. "Stop the solid foods and try again when the baby is 12 months old."'
- C. "Put the cereal in a bottle and feed the baby through a nipple with a large hole."'
- D. "Place the food in the back of the baby's mouth using a long-handled spoon."'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because at 5 months, infants are typically ready to start experimenting with solid foods. Placing the food in the back of the baby's mouth using a long-handled spoon helps prevent the baby from pushing the food out with their tongue reflex, allowing for more successful feeding. This method also encourages the baby to learn how to swallow solids properly. Choice A is incorrect as giving formula before solid food won't address the feeding issue. Choice B is incorrect as stopping solid foods until 12 months can hinder the baby's developmental milestones. Choice C is incorrect as feeding cereal in a bottle can increase the risk of choking and doesn't address the underlying issue of feeding difficulty.
Which conditions create a risk for uterine atony in the immediate postpartum period?
- A. Breastfeeding and delivery of an infant with chromosome defects
- B. Postterm birth and an amniotomy during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes and pregnancy-induced hypertension
- D. Multiparity and multiple gestation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. Multiparity: Women who have had multiple pregnancies are at higher risk for uterine atony due to uterine muscle fatigue.
2. Multiple gestation: The presence of more than one fetus puts increased demands on the uterus, increasing the risk of uterine atony.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- A: Breastfeeding and chromosome defects are not directly linked to uterine atony.
- B: Postterm birth and amniotomy do not inherently increase the risk of uterine atony.
- C: Gestational diabetes and pregnancy-induced hypertension are not specific risk factors for uterine atony.
With routine prenatal screening, a woman in the second trimester of pregnancy is confirmed to have gestational diabetes. How may the nurse explain the role of diet and insulin in the management of blood sugar during pregnancy?
- A. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic, which is a pill to lower your blood sugar.
- B. Insulin lowers an elevated blood sugar during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic needs of the baby.
- C. There is a good possibility you will be taking insulin for the rest of your life.
- D. You should eat three large meals per day to maintain steady glucose load.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin lowers an elevated blood sugar during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic needs of the baby. During pregnancy, the placenta produces hormones that can make it difficult for insulin to work effectively, leading to gestational diabetes. Insulin helps to lower blood sugar levels in the mother, which in turn provides the necessary glucose for the developing baby's growth and development. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Oral hypoglycemics are not typically prescribed during pregnancy due to potential risks to the baby. C) Gestational diabetes usually resolves after delivery and does not require lifelong insulin use. D) Eating three large meals per day can cause blood sugar spikes and is not recommended for managing gestational diabetes.