Which action should the nurse take to address suspicion of elder abuse?
- A. Privately interview the client about the injuries
- B. Document the injuries in detail, including size, location, and appearance
- C. Report the findings to the appropriate authorities, following facility protocol
- D. Take photographs of the injuries if permitted, as part of the documentation process
- E. Ensure that the client is not left alone with the suspected abuser during the interview or assessment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to address suspicion of elder abuse is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities, following facility protocol (Choice C). This is because reporting to the authorities is crucial to protect the elderly individual from further harm and ensure that the necessary interventions are implemented.
- Choice A: Privately interviewing the client may jeopardize the safety of the elderly individual and may not be the most effective immediate action.
- Choice B: Documenting the injuries is important but reporting to authorities takes precedence in cases of suspected elder abuse.
- Choice D: Taking photographs of the injuries may be helpful for documentation but should not delay reporting to authorities.
- Choice E: Ensuring the client is not left alone with the suspected abuser is important but is not as urgent as reporting the abuse to the authorities.
In conclusion, reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities is the most critical and immediate action to address suspicion of elder abuse.
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Which of the following clients should the nurse instruct the AP to report to the nurse?
- A. A client who has a prescription for compression stockings and did not receive them.
- B. A client who requests assistance in ambulating to the restroom.
- C. A client who ate 50% of their lunch tray.
- D. A client whose blood pressure is 88/52 mmHg.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg is considered hypotensive and requires immediate attention. The nurse should instruct the AP to report this vital sign reading to the nurse for further assessment and intervention to prevent complications such as hypoperfusion to vital organs. Choices A, B, and C do not pose immediate life-threatening risks and can be addressed during routine care. Choice D stands out as the priority due to the potential for serious consequences if not addressed promptly.
Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Contractions
- B. Increased fetal movement
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions. Nurses should monitor for contractions as they could indicate preterm labor or other complications. Increased fetal movement (B) is not necessarily a complication but could be a sign of fetal well-being. Hypertension (C) is important to monitor but may not be directly related to the current situation. Hypoglycemia (D) is also important but not typically a primary concern in this situation.
For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with psychosis or mania.
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Lack of sleep
- C. Excessive spending habits
- D. Disorganized thought process
- E. Pressured speech
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A, B, C, D, E. Hallucinations, lack of sleep, excessive spending habits, disorganized thought process, and pressured speech are all consistent with both psychosis and mania. Hallucinations are sensory perceptions without a real external stimulus, common in both conditions. Lack of sleep is a hallmark symptom of mania and can also exacerbate psychotic symptoms. Excessive spending habits are often seen in manic episodes due to impulsivity, and disorganized thought process and pressured speech are characteristic of both psychosis and mania, reflecting the underlying cognitive and communication disturbances. Other choices are not specific or commonly associated with psychosis or mania.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Speak in a neutral tone when addressing the client.
- B. Force the client to take the prescribed medication.
- C. Encourage the client to discuss their delusions.
- D. Use humor to lighten the mood and build trust.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Speak in a neutral tone when addressing the client. This intervention is important as it helps maintain a calm and non-threatening environment, promoting effective communication with the client. Speaking in a neutral tone also conveys respect and understanding, which can help build trust and rapport.
Choice B is incorrect because forcing the client to take medication can lead to resistance and worsen the therapeutic relationship. Choice C may not be appropriate as encouraging a client to discuss delusions without proper training or expertise in addressing such issues could potentially exacerbate the situation. Choice D, using humor, may not be suitable in this context as it may not be well received by a client experiencing delusions.
A nurse is performing a neurological examination on a client as part of a complete physical assessment. The nurse should identify that cranial nerve XI(11) is intact when the client performs which of the following actions?
- A. Shrugs his shoulders
- B. Smiles symmetrically
- C. Closes his eyes tightly
- D. Identifies a familiar scent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrugs his shoulders. Cranial nerve XI, also known as the accessory nerve, controls the movement of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are responsible for shoulder shrugging. By asking the client to shrug his shoulders, the nurse can assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with other cranial nerves. Smiling symmetrically is controlled by cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), closing eyes tightly is controlled by cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve), and identifying a familiar scent is related to cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve).