Nokea
At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?
- A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
- B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
- C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
- D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.
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When a 25-year-old client complains of chest congestion and cough after previously presenting with cold symptoms, what data should the nurse collect?
- A. Data related to follow-up care
- B. A complete health database
- C. Data related to the respiratory system
- D. Data related to the treatment for the cold
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should collect data related to the respiratory system since the client is presenting with symptoms like chest congestion and cough, indicating a respiratory issue. Focusing on the respiratory system will help gather pertinent information to assess the current problem comprehensively. A complete health database involves a detailed health history and full physical examination, which is beyond the immediate scope of the presenting issue. Data related to follow-up care is premature as the primary focus should be on assessing the current respiratory symptoms. Data related to the treatment for the cold is not the priority at this stage, as understanding the underlying respiratory problem is crucial for appropriate intervention.
The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
A healthcare professional is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected cholecystitis. Which finding does the healthcare professional expect to note if cholecystitis is present?
- A. Homan sign
- B. Murphy sign
- C. Blumberg sign
- D. McBurney sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Murphy sign. The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder disease. It involves the examiner placing fingers under the liver border while the client inhales. If the gallbladder is inflamed, it descends onto the fingers, causing pain. The Homan sign is associated with pain in the calf area upon sharp dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating deep vein thrombosis. The Blumberg sign is the presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the abdomen, indicating peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is indicative of appendicitis, presenting as severe pain and tenderness upon palpation at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?
- A. Left upper quadrant
- B. Left lower quadrant
- C. Right upper quadrant
- D. Right lower quadrant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. The nurse starts auscultating in this quadrant at the ileocecal valve as bowel sounds are normally always present there. Then, the nurse proceeds to listen for bowel sounds in the other quadrants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the initial placement of the stethoscope should be in the right lower quadrant to assess bowel sounds post-surgery.
A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
- A. Pulling the pinna up and back
- B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
- C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
- D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.