Nokea
Bell's palsy is a ___ cranial nerve disorder characterized by weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles.
- A. 3rd
- B. 7th
- C. 5th
- D. 8th
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bell's palsy is a cranial nerve disorder characterized by weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles due to inflammation, compression, or damage to the seventh cranial nerve - the facial nerve. The facial nerve controls the muscles responsible for facial expressions and functions like smiling, closing the eyes, and raising the eyebrows. Symptoms of Bell's palsy can include drooping of one side of the face, difficulty in closing one eye, drooling, impaired taste, and difficulty in smiling.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Pink, frothy sputum
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide IV is a diuretic medication commonly used to treat conditions such as pulmonary edema. In the case of pulmonary edema, the excess fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, wheezing, and the production of pink, frothy sputum. The presence of pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema and indicates the presence of fluid in the airways. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide IV treatment by monitoring the resolution of this specific symptom, as it indicates improvement in the underlying condition of pulmonary edema.
which of the following is the primary objective of care for the child with nephrosis?
- A. reduce blood pressure.
- B. reduce excretion of urinary protein.
- C. increase excretion of urinary protein.
- D. increase ability of tissues to retain fluid.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary objective of care for a child with nephrosis, also known as nephrotic syndrome, is to reduce the excretion of urinary protein. Nephrosis is a condition characterized by excessive loss of protein through the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. By reducing the excretion of urinary protein, healthcare providers aim to minimize protein loss and improve the child's nutritional status and overall health. This can be achieved through medications such as corticosteroids, diuretics, and other treatments that help to decrease proteinuria and manage symptoms associated with nephrosis. Additionally, dietary modifications and monitoring for complications such as infection and thrombosis are important aspects of care for children with nephrosis.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
- A. prefers to take insulin orally.
- B. has type 1diabetes.
- C. has type 2 diabetes.
- D. is pregnant and has type 2 diabet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are medications designed specifically for the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by improving insulin sensitivity, increasing insulin production, or reducing glucose production in the liver. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin production, requiring lifelong insulin therapy. Therefore, oral antidiabetic agents are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the client in this scenario.
Fred is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would Nurse Nica expect to assess?
- A. Mild cough
- B. Slight fever
- C. Chest pain
- D. Bulging fontanel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pneumococcal pneumonia often presents with symptoms such as chest pain due to inflammation of the lung tissue. In children, chest pain may be a common symptom alongside other signs like fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Since Fred has been diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia, Nurse Nica would expect to assess him for chest pain as part of the typical presentation of this condition in children.
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
- A. To reduce the risk of seizures before and after surgery
- B. To avoid intraoperative complications
- C. To reduce cerebral edema
- D. To prevent postoperative vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement justifying the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before intracranial surgery is "To reduce the risk of seizures before and after surgery." Patients undergoing intracranial surgery are at an increased risk of seizures due to the manipulation of the brain tissue and the potential for increased intracranial pressure during the procedure. Administering an anticonvulsant like phenytoin before surgery helps reduce the risk of seizures both during the surgery and in the postoperative period. This proactive approach not only protects the patient from the potential harm associated with seizures but also contributes to a smoother recovery process.