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Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
- A. Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
- B. Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
- C. Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
- D. Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HLA-B*1502 in Asians increases Stevens-Johnson syndrome risk with carbamazepine , per FDA warning, not efficacy or interactions .
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A physician has ordered intramuscular injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug, therefore, morphine is categorized as a:
- A. Schedule I drug
- B. Schedule II drug
- C. Schedule III drug
- D. Schedule IV drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics such as morphine are considered schedule II drugs because of the high abuse potential with severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than schedule II drugs and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.
Glucocorticoids causes:
- A. Inhibition of lipolysis
- B. Disposition of fat in upper and lower extremities
- C. Atrophy of fatty tissue on face and paleness
- D. Catabolism of bone tissue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glucocorticoids promote bone catabolism, leading to osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoblast activity and increasing osteoclast activity.
Which of the following is a thiazolidinediones:
- A. Pioglitazone
- B. Exenatide
- C. Sitagliptine
- D. Chlorpropamide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that enhances insulin sensitivity via PPAR-gamma.
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who has absence seizures. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Ethosuximide
- C. Gabapentin
- D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethosuximide , valproic acid , and lamotrigine are effective for absence seizures.
An order is written for a patient to receive 1000 mL of normal saline IV over 8 hours. If the IV infusion set is a microdrip set that delivers 60 drops/mL, how many drops per minute should the patient be receiving?
- A. 60 drops/min
- B. 120 drops/min
- C. 240 drops/min
- D. 480 drops/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If a patient were to receive 1000 mL in 8 hours, dividing 1000 by 8 would mean that the patient would receive 125 mL in 1 hour, or 60 minutes. Setting up the equation, 60 drops/mL X = 125 mL/60 min, and cross-multiplying, the answer is 120 drops/min.