Disorders of the Genitourinary System

Disorders of the Genitourinary System Related

Review Disorders of the Genitourinary System related questions and content

Carol Carson was taught self breast examination (SBE) during her last hospitalization and tells you that she has been doing the examination every month without difficulty. Which statement by Mrs. Carson would indicate to you that she does NOT have a complete understanding of the self breast examination technique?

  • A. I do the examination every month a few days after my period.
  • B. I use my fingertips to examine all of the breast tissues.
  • C. I begin the examination by inspecting my breasts with hands at my side.
  • D. I especially check the upper, outer quadrants and under my arms.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mrs. Carson's statement indicates a lack of understanding because she mentions beginning the examination by inspecting her breasts with hands at her side. The correct technique for self breast examination (SBE) involves inspecting the breasts visually in front of a mirror with hands on hips or raised above the head. This position allows for better visualization and palpation of the breast tissue. Starting the examination with hands at the sides may result in missing important areas for inspection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all align with proper SBE techniques such as timing the examination, using fingertips to examine all breast tissues, and focusing on specific areas like the upper, outer quadrants, and underarms.

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Which of the following drugs valuable in the treatment of edema and * metabolic alkalosis?

  • A. Digoxin
  • B. Spironalctone
  • C. Dobutamine
  • D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acetazolamide. Acetazolamide is a diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme, leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate ions, thus causing metabolic alkalosis correction and reducing edema. Digoxin (A) is used for heart failure, Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and Dobutamine (C) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for heart failure, none of which directly address metabolic alkalosis.

A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with pain in her lower abdomen and an abnormal pap smear result. The nurse suspects that she might have an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following is the most common symptom of ectopic pregnancy?

  • A. Severe pain on one side of the lower abdomen.
  • B. Severe nausea and vomiting.
  • C. Pain with urination or bowel movements.
  • D. Frequent urination.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe nausea and vomiting. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. As the pregnancy progresses, the tube can rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding. This bleeding can irritate the abdominal lining, causing nausea and vomiting. Severe pain on one side of the lower abdomen (choice A) is also common but not the most common symptom. Pain with urination or bowel movements (choice C) and frequent urination (choice D) are not typical symptoms of ectopic pregnancy.

Red man syndrome has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of which of the following antibiotic?

  • A. Vancomycin
  • B. Clindamycin
  • C. Cefoperazone
  • D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with rapid intravenous infusion of vancomycin. This is due to the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. Vancomycin is known to cause this syndrome, while the other antibiotics listed do not have a similar association. Clindamycin is more commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone with liver toxicity, and Piperacillin with hypersensitivity reactions like rash or anaphylaxis. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and clinical evidence, vancomycin is the correct choice for causing red man syndrome.

A patient with suprapubic pain and symptoms of urinary frequency and urgency has two negative urine cultures. What is one assessment finding that would indicate interstitial cystitis?

  • A. Residual urine greater than 200 mL
  • B. A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing
  • C. A voiding pattern that indicates psychogenic urinary retention
  • D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination is a classic symptom of interstitial cystitis. This pattern of pain is due to inflammation of the bladder lining, which worsens as the bladder fills with urine and improves temporarily after urination. This finding is specific to interstitial cystitis and not typically seen in other conditions.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Residual urine greater than 200 mL is more indicative of bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder dysfunction, not specifically interstitial cystitis.
B: A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing is suggestive of neurogenic bladder or bladder outlet obstruction, not interstitial cystitis.
C: A voiding pattern indicating psychogenic urinary retention is more likely related to psychological factors affecting bladder function, not interstitial cystitis.

Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal * reaction?:

  • A. Dapsone
  • B. Rifampin
  • C. Clofazimine
  • D. Minocycline
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Clofazimine is the correct answer because it is known to suppress both lepra reaction and reversal reaction in leprosy treatment.
Step 2: Dapsone is mainly used to treat leprosy but does not specifically target lepra reaction.
Step 3: Rifampin is effective against leprosy but does not have a direct impact on lepra reactions.
Step 4: Minocycline can be used in leprosy treatment but does not have the same dual action as clofazimine.

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