Disorders of the Genitourinary System

Disorders of the Genitourinary System Related

Review Disorders of the Genitourinary System related questions and content

Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complications of furosemide therapy:

  • A. Hypokalemia
  • B. Severe dehydration
  • C. Dilutional hyponatremia
  • D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe dehydration. Intravenous Plain NSS (Normal Saline Solution) infusion is the treatment of choice for severe dehydration due to its ability to rapidly restore fluid and electrolyte balance. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Plain NSS helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes quickly.

Rationale for other choices:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion, but treatment involves potassium supplementation or potassium-sparing diuretics, not NSS infusion.
C: Dilutional hyponatremia - Furosemide can lead to dilutional hyponatremia by causing excessive water retention, but treatment focuses on fluid restriction and correcting underlying causes, not NSS infusion.
D: None of the above - This is incorrect as NSS infusion is indicated for severe dehydration in furosemide therapy.

You may also like to solve these questions

The first step in urine production

  • A. is called reabsorption.
  • B. moves water and solutes from the renal tubules into the peritubular capillaries.
  • C. is called secretion.
  • D. occurs as water and solutes move from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsul
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the first step in urine production occurs as water and solutes move from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule during the process of filtration. This initial step involves the passive movement of water and small solutes through the filtration membrane in the glomerulus. Reabsorption (choice A) occurs later in the process when useful substances are reclaimed from the filtrate. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the process of reabsorption, not the initial step. Choice C is also incorrect as secretion is the process of actively transporting substances from the blood into the renal tubules, not the first step in urine production.

Which of the following antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria and can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhea?:

  • A. Chloramphenicol
  • B. Ciprofloxacin
  • C. Streptomycin
  • D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that interferes with DNA function in bacteria by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV enzymes. This mechanism of action prevents bacterial DNA replication and repair, leading to bacterial cell death. Ciprofloxacin is effective in treating gonorrhea due to its ability to target and kill Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria causing gonorrhea.

A: Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, not DNA function.
C: Streptomycin disrupts bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
D: Erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.

Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *

  • A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
  • B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
  • C. Varicell
  • D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.

The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? stone is most likely in what anatomic location?

  • A. At the umbilicus and the right lower quadrant of the
  • B. Meatus
  • C. Bladder
  • D. Ureter
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ureter. The nurse should assess for pain at the costovertebral angle to check for renal calculi because the ureters connect the kidneys to the bladder and flank pain at this angle can indicate ureteral obstruction from a renal stone. Assessing at the umbilicus (choice A) or meatus (choice B) would not provide information specific to renal calculi. Assessing at the bladder (choice C) would be more relevant for bladder issues, not renal calculi.

Your patient does not seem to be responding to conservative treatment for acute renal failure, and dialysis is being considered. You understand that the main indication for dialysis is

  • A. generalized edema
  • B. elevated blood pressure
  • C. elevated blood calcium
  • D. a high and rising level of potassium
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a high and rising level of potassium. Dialysis is indicated in acute renal failure when the patient has severe electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Potassium levels must be closely monitored, and if they are high and continue to rise despite conservative treatment, dialysis is necessary to quickly lower the potassium levels. Generalized edema (A) is a symptom of renal failure but is not the main indication for dialysis. Elevated blood pressure (B) and elevated blood calcium (C) are not direct indications for dialysis in the context of acute renal failure.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.