Nokea
The female gonad is called a(n)
- A. placenta
- B. fallopian tube
- C. fimbria
- D. ovary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ovary. The female gonad is the primary reproductive organ that produces eggs and secretes hormones. The ovary is specifically responsible for these functions. Placenta (A) is an organ formed during pregnancy, fallopian tube (B) is a part of the female reproductive system that transports eggs, and fimbria (C) are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube. Therefore, the ovary is the only choice that accurately represents the female gonad.
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A patient with suprapubic pain and symptoms of urinary frequency and urgency has two negative urine cultures. What is one assessment finding that would indicate interstitial cystitis?
- A. Residual urine greater than 200 mL
- B. A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing
- C. A voiding pattern that indicates psychogenic urinary retention
- D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pain with bladder filling that is transiently relieved by urination is a classic symptom of interstitial cystitis. This pattern of pain is due to inflammation of the bladder lining, which worsens as the bladder fills with urine and improves temporarily after urination. This finding is specific to interstitial cystitis and not typically seen in other conditions.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Residual urine greater than 200 mL is more indicative of bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder dysfunction, not specifically interstitial cystitis.
B: A large, atonic bladder on urodynamic testing is suggestive of neurogenic bladder or bladder outlet obstruction, not interstitial cystitis.
C: A voiding pattern indicating psychogenic urinary retention is more likely related to psychological factors affecting bladder function, not interstitial cystitis.
A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with pain in her lower abdomen and an abnormal pap smear result. The nurse suspects that she might have an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following is the most common symptom of ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Severe pain on one side of the lower abdomen.
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting.
- C. Pain with urination or bowel movements.
- D. Frequent urination.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe nausea and vomiting. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. As the pregnancy progresses, the tube can rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding. This bleeding can irritate the abdominal lining, causing nausea and vomiting. Severe pain on one side of the lower abdomen (choice A) is also common but not the most common symptom. Pain with urination or bowel movements (choice C) and frequent urination (choice D) are not typical symptoms of ectopic pregnancy.
A 70 year old man requires treatment with an alpha-blocker for overflow incontinence due to enlarged prostate. Which of the following alpha blocking drugs is most appropriate drug to prescribe that will not affect his blood pressure significantly?
- A. Prazosin
- B. Phentolamine
- C. Tamsulosin
- D. Terazosin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tamsulosin. It is the most appropriate alpha-blocker for the elderly man with enlarged prostate and overflow incontinence because of its selective action on alpha-1A receptors in the prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle without significantly affecting blood pressure.
Rationale:
1. Prazosin (Choice A) and Terazosin (Choice D) are non-selective alpha-blockers that can cause significant blood pressure lowering due to their action on alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels, which may not be suitable for this patient.
2. Phentolamine (Choice B) is also a non-selective alpha-blocker that can lead to significant blood pressure reduction, making it unsuitable for this patient.
3. Tamsulosin (Choice C) is a selective alpha-1A blocker, primarily acting on the prostate, with minimal impact on blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for this patient.
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
- A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
- B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
- C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
- D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal * reaction?:
- A. Dapsone
- B. Rifampin
- C. Clofazimine
- D. Minocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Clofazimine is the correct answer because it is known to suppress both lepra reaction and reversal reaction in leprosy treatment.
Step 2: Dapsone is mainly used to treat leprosy but does not specifically target lepra reaction.
Step 3: Rifampin is effective against leprosy but does not have a direct impact on lepra reactions.
Step 4: Minocycline can be used in leprosy treatment but does not have the same dual action as clofazimine.