Nokea
Which of the following antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria and can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhea?:
- A. Chloramphenicol
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Streptomycin
- D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that interferes with DNA function in bacteria by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV enzymes. This mechanism of action prevents bacterial DNA replication and repair, leading to bacterial cell death. Ciprofloxacin is effective in treating gonorrhea due to its ability to target and kill Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria causing gonorrhea.
A: Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, not DNA function.
C: Streptomycin disrupts bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
D: Erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
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Due to its potential for severe hepatotoxicity, Nevirapine should NOT be initiated in:
- A. Women with CD4 cell counts >150 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- B. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- C. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >500 cells/mm3
- D. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >450 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nevirapine has a higher risk of severe hepatotoxicity in patients with higher CD4 cell counts. Choice B specifies a lower threshold for CD4 cell counts in women compared to men, which aligns with the caution needed for initiating Nevirapine. Choices A, C, and D have higher CD4 cell count thresholds for both women and men, which would increase the risk of hepatotoxicity if Nevirapine is initiated in those patients. Therefore, Choice B is the most appropriate option to minimize the risk of hepatotoxicity when initiating Nevirapine.
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
- A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
- B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
- C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
- D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
Which of the following is true of nephrons?
- A. they are the functional units of the kidneys
- B. the proximal convoluted tubules allow the kidney to concentrate or dilute urine
- C. there are about a million nephrons in each kidney
- D. both a and c are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Identify key characteristics of nephrons - functional units of kidneys, responsible for urine formation.
Step 2: Confirm accuracy of statements - A: Nephrons are functional units. C: About a million nephrons in each kidney.
Step 3: Combine statements - A + C = D, confirming both are correct.
Step 4: Justify choice D - correct because nephrons are indeed functional units and there are approximately a million in each kidney.
Summary: B is incorrect as the proximal convoluted tubules are not solely responsible for urine concentration/dilution. Choice D is correct as it combines the accurate statements from A and C.
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *
- A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
- B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
- C. Varicell
- D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.