Nokea
You should take this medication with meals to avoid stomach ulcers.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Taking medication with meals can help to prevent stomach ulcers by reducing the direct contact of the medication with the stomach lining. Food acts as a buffer, decreasing the likelihood of irritation or ulcer formation. The other choices are incorrect because B: FALSE implies the opposite, C: Maybe lacks a clear stance, and D: Not mentioned does not provide any useful information to answer the question definitively.
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The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is:
- A. Height spurt
- B. Penis lengthening
- C. Sperm production
- D. Pubic hair development
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there might be a mistake in the question as there is no option E provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each option based on the typical sequence of physical changes during puberty in boys. The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is usually pubic hair development (D), followed by penis lengthening (B), height spurt (A), and lastly sperm production (C). Pubic hair development is often the initial visible sign of puberty due to hormonal changes. Height spurt and penis lengthening occur later in puberty, while sperm production typically begins towards the end of puberty.
A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these?
- A. Varicocele.
- B. Epididymitis.
- C. Spermatocele.
- D. Testicular torsion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.
As a charge nurse, which patient's nursing care would you assign to the LPN/LVN?
- A. A 48-year-old patient with cystitis taking oral antibiotics
- B. A 64-year-old patient with kidney stones and a new order for lithotripsy
- C. A 72-year-old patient with urinary incontinence needing bladder training
- D. A 52-year-old patient with pyelonephritis and severe acute flank pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with kidney stones requiring lithotripsy would benefit from the LPN/LVN's care. This task involves monitoring the patient's vital signs, providing pre and post-procedure care, and ensuring patient comfort. The LPN/LVN is trained to perform these duties safely.
Choice A is incorrect as the patient with cystitis on oral antibiotics can be managed by a nursing assistant under supervision. Choice C is incorrect because bladder training for urinary incontinence typically requires the skills of an RN due to the complexity of the intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the patient with pyelonephritis and severe flank pain requires immediate assessment and intervention by an RN due to the severity of the condition.
A gerontologic nurse is assessing a patient who has
- A. The patients suprapubic region is dull on percussion. numerous comorbid health problems. What assessment
- B. The patient is uncharacteristically drowsy. findings should prompt the nurse to suspect a UTI?
- C. The patient claims to void large amounts of urine 2 to Select all that apply.
- D. Food cravings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because uncharacteristic drowsiness can be a sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults. UTIs can present atypically in older adults with symptoms like confusion, lethargy, and drowsiness. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: A dull suprapubic region on percussion is not specific to UTI.
C: Voiding large amounts of urine is not a typical symptom of UTI.
D: Food cravings are not associated with UTI symptoms.
Your patient does not seem to be responding to conservative treatment for acute renal failure, and dialysis is being considered. You understand that the main indication for dialysis is
- A. generalized edema
- B. elevated blood pressure
- C. elevated blood calcium
- D. a high and rising level of potassium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a high and rising level of potassium. Dialysis is indicated in acute renal failure when the patient has severe electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Potassium levels must be closely monitored, and if they are high and continue to rise despite conservative treatment, dialysis is necessary to quickly lower the potassium levels. Generalized edema (A) is a symptom of renal failure but is not the main indication for dialysis. Elevated blood pressure (B) and elevated blood calcium (C) are not direct indications for dialysis in the context of acute renal failure.