The following drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis: *
- A. Diiodohydroxyquin
- B. Tinidazole
- C. Clotrimazole
- D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinidazole. This drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis due to its high efficacy against the parasite. Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that targets anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas vaginalis. Diiodohydroxyquin (A) is used for amoebiasis, not trichomonas. Clotrimazole (C) and Ketoconazole (D) are antifungal medications and not effective against trichomonas parasites.
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Which statement accurately describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
- A. The primary function of GFR is to excrete nitrogenous waste products.
- B. Decreased permeability in the glomerulus causes loss of proteins into the urine.
- C. The GFR is primarily dependent on adequate blood flow and adequate hydrostatic pressure.
- D. The GFR is decreased when prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased renal blood flow.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Adequate blood flow is essential for GFR as it ensures efficient filtration of blood in the glomerulus.
2. Adequate hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus is needed to push filtrate into the tubules.
3. If blood flow or hydrostatic pressure is inadequate, GFR will decrease.
4. Option A is incorrect as GFR primarily filters blood, not excretes waste products.
5. Option B is incorrect as increased permeability in the glomerulus leads to protein loss, not decreased.
6. Option D is incorrect as prostaglandins causing vasodilation would increase, not decrease, GFR.
Summary:
The correct answer is C because GFR is primarily dependent on adequate blood flow and hydrostatic pressure. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the factors affecting GFR.
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
- A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
- B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
- C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
- D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria?
- A. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity.
- B. Causative factor is malignant hypertension.
- C. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration.
- D. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because prerenal oliguria is typically characterized by a low specific gravity in urine testing. This indicates that the kidneys are conserving water due to decreased blood flow or volume. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to prerenal oliguria. Choice D is also incorrect as reversal of oliguria with fluid replacement is not specific to prerenal oliguria and can occur in other types of renal failure.
The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is:
- A. Height spurt
- B. Penis lengthening
- C. Sperm production
- D. Pubic hair development
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there might be a mistake in the question as there is no option E provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each option based on the typical sequence of physical changes during puberty in boys. The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is usually pubic hair development (D), followed by penis lengthening (B), height spurt (A), and lastly sperm production (C). Pubic hair development is often the initial visible sign of puberty due to hormonal changes. Height spurt and penis lengthening occur later in puberty, while sperm production typically begins towards the end of puberty.
Which of the following semisynthetic penicillins which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant?:
- A. Cloxacillin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amoxicillin. This penicillin has an extended spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacilli, making it effective against a wider range of bacteria. It is acid-resistant, allowing it to be taken orally, but it is not penicillinase-resistant, meaning it can be easily degraded by beta-lactamase enzymes.
A: Cloxacillin is penicillinase-resistant but does not have an extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli.
C: Phenoxymethyl penicillin is not acid-resistant and does not have an extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli.
D: Piperacillin has an extended spectrum of activity but is not acid-resistant and is susceptible to penicillinase.