Disorders of the Genitourinary System

Disorders of the Genitourinary System Related

Review Disorders of the Genitourinary System related questions and content

When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct?

  • A. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum
  • B. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament
  • C. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection
  • D. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamine
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament. This is the correct action during a male genital examination as it helps assess for any abnormalities or signs of infection in the lymphatic system. Palpating the lymph nodes allows the nurse to identify any swelling, tenderness, or enlargement which could indicate underlying health issues. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Auscultating for a bruit over the scrotum is not a standard practice during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.
C: Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present is incorrect as palpating the inguinal canal should be done regardless of the presence of a bulge to check for hernias.
D: Having the patient shift his weight is not a standard procedure during a genital examination and is not relevant to assessing male genital health.

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Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: *

  • A. Amiloride
  • B. Chlorthalidone
  • C. Furosemide
  • D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so combining it with another potassium-sparing diuretic like amiloride can lead to hyperkalemia. Chlorthalidone, a thiazide-like diuretic, can be synergistic with spironolactone. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can counteract the potassium-sparing effects of spironolactone. Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can also lead to hypokalemia when combined with spironolactone. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as combining spironolactone with hydrochlorothiazide may increase the risk of potassium imbalance.

The highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:

  • A. Ampicillin
  • B. Chloramphenicol
  • C. Vancomycin
  • D. Clindamycin
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with the highest incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its broad-spectrum activity that disrupts the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. Ampicillin, Chloramphenicol, and Vancomycin are also associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis, but the highest incidence is seen with Clindamycin due to its stronger impact on gut flora imbalance.

A patient with severe infectious disease is being treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics. Which of the following diuretic should be avoided for this patient because of the serious side effect shared by both drugs?

  • A. Furosemide
  • B. Hydrochlorothiazide
  • C. Spironolactone
  • D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Aminoglycoside antibiotics can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, also has the potential to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Therefore, combining aminoglycosides with furosemide can increase the risk of these serious side effects.

B: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.

C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not have the same side effects as aminoglycosides.

D: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic and does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.

Which of the following antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria and can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhea?:

  • A. Chloramphenicol
  • B. Ciprofloxacin
  • C. Streptomycin
  • D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that interferes with DNA function in bacteria by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV enzymes. This mechanism of action prevents bacterial DNA replication and repair, leading to bacterial cell death. Ciprofloxacin is effective in treating gonorrhea due to its ability to target and kill Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria causing gonorrhea.

A: Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, not DNA function.
C: Streptomycin disrupts bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
D: Erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.

During the interview, a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be:

  • A. Oh, don't worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.
  • B. Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?
  • C. I'd like some information about the discharge. What color is it?
  • D. Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on gathering more information about the vaginal discharge, which is essential in assessing the patient's condition. By asking about the color of the discharge, the nurse can gather valuable information to help determine if it might be related to a sexually transmitted infection or another issue. This approach shows a patient-centered and thorough assessment.

Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's concerns without obtaining further information. Choice B jumps to conclusions about unprotected sexual intercourse without first assessing the situation. Choice D is unrelated to the patient's primary concern about vaginal discharge and urinary incontinence.

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