Nokea
"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
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The female gonad is called a(n)
- A. placenta
- B. fallopian tube
- C. fimbria
- D. ovary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: ovary. The female gonad is the primary reproductive organ that produces eggs and secretes hormones. The ovary is specifically responsible for these functions. Placenta (A) is an organ formed during pregnancy, fallopian tube (B) is a part of the female reproductive system that transports eggs, and fimbria (C) are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube. Therefore, the ovary is the only choice that accurately represents the female gonad.
When the nurse is performing a testicular examination on a 25-year-old man, which finding is considered normal?
- A. Nontender subcutaneous plaques
- B. Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular
- C. Testes that feel oval and movable and are slightly sensitive to compression
- D. Single, hard, circumscribed, movaNblUe RmSaIsNsG, lTeBss. CthOaMn 1 cm under the surface of the testes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testes that feel oval, movable, and slightly sensitive to compression are considered normal during a testicular examination in a 25-year-old man. This finding indicates normal testicular anatomy and function.
Rationale:
1. Oval shape: Normal testes are typically oval in shape.
2. Movable: Normal testes should be able to move slightly within the scrotum.
3. Sensitive to compression: Slight sensitivity to compression is normal due to the presence of nerves and blood vessels in the testes.
Summary of other choices:
A: Nontender subcutaneous plaques - Not normal; could indicate conditions like Peyronie's disease.
B: Scrotal area that is dry, scaly, and nodular - Not normal; could suggest dermatological conditions or infections.
D: Single, hard, circumscribed, movable mass 1 cm under the surface of the testes - Not normal; could be indicative of a test
Due to its potential for severe hepatotoxicity, Nevirapine should NOT be initiated in:
- A. Women with CD4 cell counts >150 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- B. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >400 cells/mm3
- C. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >500 cells/mm3
- D. Women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4 cell count >450 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nevirapine has a higher risk of severe hepatotoxicity in patients with higher CD4 cell counts. Choice B specifies a lower threshold for CD4 cell counts in women compared to men, which aligns with the caution needed for initiating Nevirapine. Choices A, C, and D have higher CD4 cell count thresholds for both women and men, which would increase the risk of hepatotoxicity if Nevirapine is initiated in those patients. Therefore, Choice B is the most appropriate option to minimize the risk of hepatotoxicity when initiating Nevirapine.
Carol Carson was taught self breast examination (SBE) during her last hospitalization and tells you that she has been doing the examination every month without difficulty. Which statement by Mrs. Carson would indicate to you that she does NOT have a complete understanding of the self breast examination technique?
- A. I do the examination every month a few days after my period.
- B. I use my fingertips to examine all of the breast tissues.
- C. I begin the examination by inspecting my breasts with hands at my side.
- D. I especially check the upper, outer quadrants and under my arms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mrs. Carson's statement indicates a lack of understanding because she mentions beginning the examination by inspecting her breasts with hands at her side. The correct technique for self breast examination (SBE) involves inspecting the breasts visually in front of a mirror with hands on hips or raised above the head. This position allows for better visualization and palpation of the breast tissue. Starting the examination with hands at the sides may result in missing important areas for inspection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all align with proper SBE techniques such as timing the examination, using fingertips to examine all breast tissues, and focusing on specific areas like the upper, outer quadrants, and underarms.
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene * epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onymycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinane
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotiricin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Terbinafine is the correct answer as it inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. This drug is specifically effective against onychomycosis in diabetic patients due to its fungicidal action and good nail penetration. Griseofulvin (A) targets microtubules, not squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) inhibits ergosterol synthesis via a different mechanism. Amphotericin B (D) disrupts fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol, not squalene epoxidase.