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The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying:
- A. Puberty usually begins around 15 years of ag
- C. The first sign of puberty is an enlargement of the testes.
- D. The penis size does not increase until about 16 years of ag
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the first sign of puberty in boys is typically an enlargement of the testes due to increased testosterone production. This occurs around age 10-14. Choice A is incorrect as puberty usually begins around 10-14 years of age. Choice D is incorrect as penis growth usually starts during puberty, not at 16.
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Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complications of furosemide therapy:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Severe dehydration
- C. Dilutional hyponatremia
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe dehydration. Intravenous Plain NSS (Normal Saline Solution) infusion is the treatment of choice for severe dehydration due to its ability to rapidly restore fluid and electrolyte balance. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Plain NSS helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes quickly.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion, but treatment involves potassium supplementation or potassium-sparing diuretics, not NSS infusion.
C: Dilutional hyponatremia - Furosemide can lead to dilutional hyponatremia by causing excessive water retention, but treatment focuses on fluid restriction and correcting underlying causes, not NSS infusion.
D: None of the above - This is incorrect as NSS infusion is indicated for severe dehydration in furosemide therapy.
A patient with severe infectious disease is being treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics. Which of the following diuretic should be avoided for this patient because of the serious side effect shared by both drugs?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Aminoglycoside antibiotics can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, also has the potential to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Therefore, combining aminoglycosides with furosemide can increase the risk of these serious side effects.
B: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.
C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not have the same side effects as aminoglycosides.
D: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic and does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.
The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is:
- A. Height spurt
- B. Penis lengthening
- C. Sperm production
- D. Pubic hair development
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there might be a mistake in the question as there is no option E provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each option based on the typical sequence of physical changes during puberty in boys. The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is usually pubic hair development (D), followed by penis lengthening (B), height spurt (A), and lastly sperm production (C). Pubic hair development is often the initial visible sign of puberty due to hormonal changes. Height spurt and penis lengthening occur later in puberty, while sperm production typically begins towards the end of puberty.
Which of the following antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria and can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhea?:
- A. Chloramphenicol
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Streptomycin
- D. Erythromycin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that interferes with DNA function in bacteria by inhibiting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV enzymes. This mechanism of action prevents bacterial DNA replication and repair, leading to bacterial cell death. Ciprofloxacin is effective in treating gonorrhea due to its ability to target and kill Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria causing gonorrhea.
A: Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, not DNA function.
C: Streptomycin disrupts bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
D: Erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the ribosome, not DNA function.
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *
- A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
- B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
- C. Varicell
- D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.