Causes of hypertension in a child include:
- A. Long-standing vesico-ureteric reflux
- B. Cushing's syndrome
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Turner's syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cushing's syndrome, characterized by excessive cortisol levels, is a known cause of secondary hypertension in children.
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The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on congenital heart defects. Which structural defect constitutes tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. There is pulmonic stenosis but not atrial stenosis in tetralogy of Fallot. Right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, is present in tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot has right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect, not aortic hypertrophy.
A nurse assists a male client with Parkinson's disease (PD) to ambulate in the hallway. The client appears to 'freeze' and then carefully lifts one leg and steps forward. He tells the nurse that he is pretending to step over a crack on the floor. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Re-orient the client to his present location and circumstances
- B. Confirm that this is an effective technique to help with ambulation
- C. Assist the client to a carpeted area where he can walk more easily
- D. Plan to assess the client's cognition after returning to his room
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pretending to step over a crack is a known technique that can help clients with PD overcome freezing episodes.
A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention should the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery?
- A. Administration of IV furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Initiation of an external pacemaker
- C. Assistance with endotracheal intubation
- D. Placement of central venous access
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An 80% blockage of the RCA can lead to bradycardia or heart block. An external pacemaker may be needed to maintain adequate heart rate and cardiac output.
Which therapeutic management should the nurse expect to implement for a child with rheumatic fever?
- A. Administering penicillin
- B. Avoiding salicylates (aspirin)
- C. Imposing strict bed rest for 4 to 6 weeks
- D. Administering corticosteroids if chorea develops
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The goal of medical management is the eradication of the hemolytic streptococci. Penicillin is the drug of choice. Salicylates can be used to control the inflammatory process, especially in the joints, and reduce the fever and discomfort. Bed rest is recommended for the acute febrile stage, but it does not need to be strict. The chorea is transient and will resolve without treatment.
The following statements are true regarding a screening test:
- A. Sensitivity indicates the proportion of true positives
- B. Specificity indicates the proportion of true negatives
- C. Sensitivity is inversely related to specificity
- D. Prevalence affects predictive value
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prevalence affects predictive value