Nokea
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is
- A. prolonged ischemia.
- B. exposure to nephrotoxic substances.
- C. acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- D. hypotension for several hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition as it directly affects kidney tubules.
2. ATN is characterized by damage to renal tubular cells due to various factors like toxins or ischemia.
3. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) can lead to ATN but is not the most common intrarenal condition.
4. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can cause ATN, but ATN itself is more common.
5. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemia and subsequent ATN, but ATN is still the primary intrarenal condition.
You may also like to solve these questions
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability.
A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis.
B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis.
C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process.
In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
- A. Lessened antianxiety
- B. Complete analgesia.
- C. High levels of sedation.
- D. No sedation or analgesia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Change in sputum characteristics
- C. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis
- D. Pursed-lip breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
A patient in the ICU is recovering from open-heart surgery. The nurse enters his room and observes that his daughter is performing effleurage on his arms and talking in a low voice about an upcoming family vacation that is planned. The room is dimly lit, and she hears the constant beeping of his heart monitor. From the hall she hears the cries of a patient in pain. Which of the following are likely stressors for the patient? Select all that apply.
- A. His daughters conversation
- B. His daughters effleurage
- C. The beeping of the heart monitor
- D. The dim lighting of the room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The beeping of the heart monitor is a likely stressor for the patient recovering from open-heart surgery in the ICU. The constant beeping can cause anxiety and uncertainty about their health status. The daughter's conversation and effleurage are likely comforting and supportive for the patient, reducing stress. The dim lighting may create a calming environment, and the distant cries of a patient in pain may evoke empathy but may not directly stress the recovering patient. Therefore, the beeping of the heart monitor stands out as a stressor among the choices provided.
The nurse wishes to enhance sleep cycles in her critically ill patient. Research has shown that which nursing action improves sleep in critically ill patients?
- A. Repositioning every 2 hours
- B. Hypnotic medications
- C. Five-minute back effleurage
- D. Adequate pain control
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adequate pain control. Pain can significantly disrupt sleep in critically ill patients. By ensuring adequate pain control, the nurse can help improve the patient's ability to rest and sleep. This intervention targets a key factor affecting sleep cycles in critically ill patients. Repositioning every 2 hours (A) may help prevent pressure ulcers but does not directly address sleep improvement. Hypnotic medications (B) may have adverse effects and are not recommended as a first-line intervention. Five-minute back effleurage (C) may provide temporary relaxation but is not as effective as adequate pain control in improving sleep quality.