In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because when a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate GFR. The Cockcroft-Gault equation or the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are commonly used formulas to estimate GFR based on serum creatinine levels, age, gender, and race. These formulas provide a reasonable estimation of kidney function in the absence of a 24-hour urine collection.
Choice A is incorrect because there are alternative methods available to estimate GFR. Choice B is incorrect because BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. Choice C is incorrect because an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as hydration status or liver function.
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Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability.
A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis.
B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis.
C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process.
In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.
A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required?
- A. The arterial pressure is 90/46.
- B. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
- C. The stroke volume is increased.
- D. The stroke volume variation is 12%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A decrease in the arterial pressure (hypotension) with a low diastolic pressure (46 mmHg) may indicate inadequate perfusion, possibly due to inadequate cardiac output from the mechanical ventilation. This suggests that a change in ventilator settings may be required to improve oxygenation and perfusion.
Option B is incorrect because a heart rate of 58 beats/minute alone does not provide direct information on the patient's hemodynamic status. Option C is incorrect as an increased stroke volume would usually be a positive indicator; it does not necessarily indicate a need for changing the ventilator settings. Option D is incorrect as a stroke volume variation of 12% is within normal limits and does not necessarily require a change in ventilator settings.
An unresponsive 79-year-old is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient’s core temperature is 105.4°F (40.8°C), blood pressure (BP) 88/50, and pulse 112. The nurse initially will plan to:
- A. Apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient.
- B. Provide O2 at 6 L/min with a nasal cannula.
- C. Start lactated Ringer's solution at 1000 mL/hr.
- D. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. This is the initial treatment for hyperthermia to aid in lowering the body temperature. Wet sheets help in evaporative cooling, while a fan enhances heat loss through convection. This approach is crucial in managing heat-related illnesses quickly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the urgent need to reduce the patient's elevated core temperature. Providing O2, IV fluids, or acetaminophen can be considered later in the management, but the priority is to rapidly lower the body temperature in a hyperthermic patient to prevent further complications.
Comparing the patient’s current (home) medications with those ordered during hospitalization and communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider when the patient is transferred within an organization or to another setting a re strategies toward best achieving what patient related goal?
- A. Improving accuracy of patient identification.
- B. Preventing errors related to look-alike and sound-alike medications.
- C. Reconciling medications across the continuum of care.
- D. Reducing harms associated with administration of anti coagulants.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Reconciling medications is essential for patient safety as it involves comparing current and ordered medications to ensure accuracy.
Step 2: This process helps prevent medication errors, adverse drug reactions, and duplications across different care settings.
Step 3: Communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider ensures continuity of care and reduces the risk of medication discrepancies.
Step 4: By reconciling medications across the continuum of care, healthcare providers can better coordinate patient care and optimize treatment outcomes.
In summary, choice C is correct as it focuses on medication reconciliation to improve patient safety and care coordination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the comprehensive process of reconciling medications across care settings.
The nurse cites evidence-based practice as a rationale for a patient care decision. What isthe best description of evidence-based practice?
- A. Decisions based on expert legal testimony
- B. Use of best available research data
- C. Evolution of nursing practice over time
- D. Individual optimization of patient outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of best available research data. Evidence-based practice involves integrating the best available research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values to make informed decisions about patient care. It emphasizes using scientifically proven data to guide practice and improve patient outcomes. Expert legal testimony (A) is not necessarily evidence-based. Evolution of nursing practice over time (C) does not specifically focus on research data. Individual optimization of patient outcomes (D) is a goal of evidence-based practice, but it does not fully encompass the concept.