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Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
- A. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- B. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients.
Incorrect Answer Analysis:
A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis.
B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water.
C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.
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Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?
- A. Situation
- B. Background
- C. Assessment
- D. Recommendation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge.
Summary of other choices:
A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation.
B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition.
D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after
What must the patient must be able of in order to provide informed consent?
- A. Be capable of independent breathing.
- B. Have knowledge and competence to make the decision .
- C. Nod head to agree to the procedure.
- D. Both read and write in English.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because informed consent requires the patient to have knowledge and competence to make a decision. This involves understanding the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the proposed treatment. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains to a physical ability unrelated to decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as consent must be verbal or written, not just nodding. Choice D is incorrect as consent can be obtained in various ways, not specifically through reading and writing in English.
A patient has just been admitted to the ICU after being in a severe auto accident and losing one of her legs. Her husband has his hand over his heart and complains of a rapid heart rate. The nurse recognizes his condition as a sign of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome to stress?
- A. Alarm stage
- B. Exhaustion stage
- C. Resistance stage
- D. Adaptation stage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarm stage. The husband's rapid heart rate indicates the initial alarm reaction to stress, characterized by physiological arousal. This stage involves the body's fight-or-flight response to a stressor. In this scenario, the husband is experiencing the physiological effects of the stressful situation, such as the auto accident and loss of a limb. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Exhaustion stage occurs if stress continues without relief, leading to depletion of resources and increased vulnerability to illness.
C: Resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the stressor after the initial alarm reaction.
D: Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the general adaptation syndrome model.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
- A. Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94%a. birb.com/test
- B. Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour.
- C. Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes.
- D. Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate:
A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock.
B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion.
C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Pain relief
- B. Nausea relief
- C. Psychological support
- D. Withdrawal of life-support interventions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.