Nokea
Cooley's anemia is:
- A. Sickle cell an.
- B. thalassemia major
- C. high ESR
- D. aplastic an.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cooley's anemia is another term for thalassemia major, a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin production leading to severe anemia. The correct answer is B because Cooley's anemia specifically refers to thalassemia major. Sickle cell anemia (A) is a different genetic disorder caused by abnormal hemoglobin shape. High ESR (C) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and does not directly relate to Cooley's anemia. Aplastic anemia (D) is a condition where the bone marrow does not produce enough blood cells, not related to Cooley's anemia.
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Koilonychias is a specific feature of
- A. Hemolytic anemia
- B. Sickle cell disease
- C. Thalassemia major
- D. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct:
1. Koilonychias is characterized by spoon-shaped nails, a common symptom of iron deficiency anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels.
2. Iron is essential for normal nail growth, and its deficiency can lead to changes in nail shape.
3. Hemolytic anemia (A) is characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not typically associated with koilonychias.
4. Sickle cell disease (B) causes abnormal hemoglobin, leading to sickle-shaped red blood cells, not related to koilonychias.
5. Thalassemia major (C) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin production, but it does not directly cause koilonychias.
A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is receiving alteplase following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the client to be taking in addition to the alteplase?
- A. Protamine
- B. Desmopressin
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Heparin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heparin. Following an acute MI, a client receiving alteplase may also be prescribed heparin to prevent re-thrombosis and further clot formation. Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent that works by breaking down clots, while heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent new clots from forming. Protamine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not typically administered alongside alteplase. Desmopressin (choice B) is used for conditions like diabetes insipidus, unrelated to MI treatment. Ferrous sulfate (choice C) is an iron supplement, not indicated in this scenario.
The nurse is reviewing the results of a patient's arterial blood gas analysis. What should the nurse recognize as being a normal blood pH?
- A. 7.29
- B. 7.31
- C. 7.38
- D. 7.48
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal blood pH range is 7.35-7.45. Choice C (7.38) falls within this range, indicating a normal pH level. Choices A (7.29) and D (7.48) are outside the normal range, indicating acidosis and alkalosis, respectively. Choice B (7.31) is slightly below the normal range, indicating mild acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it represents a normal blood pH level within the appropriate range.
A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding?
- A. Hematocrit of 35%
- B. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 400000/L
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/L
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/L. A low WBC count (leukopenia) in an older patient can indicate an impaired immune system, making them vulnerable to infections. This is concerning as older adults have a weakened immune response. A: Hematocrit of 35% is within the normal range. B: Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL is slightly low but not a major concern as long as it's not significantly lower. C: Platelet count of 400000/L is within the normal range and not typically a cause for concern.
Artemisinin and its derivatives are used in the treatment of severe forms of chloroquine-resistant falciparum because they have:
- A. Rapid gametocidal activity
- B. The ability to prevent further development of hypnozoites
- C. Rapid sporontocidal activity
- D. Rapid schizonticidal activity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rapid schizonticidal activity. Artemisinin and its derivatives target the asexual stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle, specifically the schizont stage. By quickly destroying the schizonts, they effectively kill the parasites in the blood, leading to a rapid reduction in parasite load and alleviating symptoms. The other choices are incorrect because A (Rapid gametocidal activity) targets sexual stage parasites, B (Ability to prevent further development of hypnozoites) refers to relapse prevention in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale infections, and C (Rapid sporontocidal activity) targets the mosquito stage of the parasite's life cycle.