Nokea
Cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes consists of:
- A. Phospholipids
- B. Proteins
- C. Carbohydrates
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes consists of phospholipids which form a lipid bilayer, providing structure and selective permeability. Proteins are embedded in this membrane, serving various functions like transport and signaling. Carbohydrates may also be present on the surface for cell recognition. Therefore, all three components (phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates) are essential parts of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane. Option A, B, and C individually do not fully encapsulate the complexity and composition of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane.
You may also like to solve these questions
The cytoplasmic membrane of the eukaryotes, in contrast to the one of prokaryotes, has:
- A. cellulose
- B. starch
- C. chitin
- D. sterols
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: sterols. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes contain sterols, such as cholesterol, which provide stability and regulate fluidity. This is a key characteristic that distinguishes them from prokaryotic membranes. Cellulose (A) is a component of plant cell walls, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Starch (B) is a carbohydrate used for energy storage in plants. Chitin (C) is a component of fungal cell walls and arthropod exoskeletons, not found in eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes.
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.
Which one of the following statements about Rickettsiae is true?
- A. They do not form spores, capsules and flagella
- B. They have slim glycocalyx layer
- C. They have bipolar fimbriae
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria, hence they do not form spores, capsules, or flagella.
2. They have a slim glycocalyx layer, aiding in attachment to host cells.
3. Bipolar fimbriae are structures that help in adhesion to host cells.
Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are true for Rickettsiae, making option D the correct answer. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of Rickettsiae.
Decontamination is defined as the
- A. killing of all microorganisms in a given area.
- B. reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents.
- C. stopping of the growth of microorganisms in a given area.
- D. removal of all vegetative organisms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decontamination is the reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents to make an area safe. This includes cleaning, disinfecting, or sterilizing to eliminate harmful substances. Choice A is incorrect as decontamination doesn't necessarily involve killing all microorganisms. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on stopping growth, not removing existing contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions vegetative organisms, which may not cover all types of contaminants that need to be removed during decontamination. Thus, the correct answer is B as it accurately describes the process of decontamination.
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Reiter's syndrome
- B. Rheumatic arthritis
- C. Gout
- D. Bechterew's disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.