Nokea
Delivery of the head in a complete breech presentation is usually accomplished through
- A. Lovset maneuver
- B. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit
- C. Burns Marshall method
- D. Gentle traction of the neck
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit. This method involves flexing the hips, extending the thighs, and applying suprapubic pressure to deliver the head in a complete breech presentation. This technique helps to avoid hyperextension of the neck and potential spinal cord injury. The Lovset maneuver (A) is used for delivering the arms in a breech presentation. The Burns Marshall method (C) involves performing an episiotomy and delivering the baby by flexion and traction on the legs. Gentle traction of the neck (D) is not recommended as it can cause spinal cord injury. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit is the preferred method for safe delivery of the head in a complete breech presentation.
You may also like to solve these questions
P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate
- A. Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures
- B. Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures
- C. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased cardiac output
- D. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance.
A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance.
B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output.
D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
- A. 36 weeks gestation
- B. 42 weeks gestation
- C. 38 weeks gestation
- D. 40 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this stage, the fetal lie should stabilize into a consistent position, typically longitudinal. Before 36 weeks, fetal movement and position can vary frequently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where fetal lie should have stabilized. At 42 weeks gestation (Choice B), the baby is considered post-term, and fetal lie should have already been established. Similarly, Choices C (38 weeks) and D (40 weeks) fall within the expected range for fetal lie stabilization.
A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
- A. It is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- B. It is an impaction of the posterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- C. Shoulder dystocia occurs due to compound presentation of the fetus
- D. Shoulder dystocia is not an emergency and resolves on its own effort gradually
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication.
C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously.
D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.
Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
- A. Iron and thiamine
- B. Iron and folic acid
- C. Folic acid and thiamine
- D. Liver enzymes and iron
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.
The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract, associated with abnormal apical position, is
- A. Laryngeal stridor
- B. Diaphragmatic hernia
- C. Choanal atresia
- D. Tracheo-bronchi fistula
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose.
Explanation:
1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position.
2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position.
3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position.
In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of