Nokea
How does iron supplementation benefit pregnancy?
- A. Increases fetal blood flow
- B. Reduces anemia
- C. Prevents miscarriages
- D. Enhances fetal bone growth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Iron supplementation benefits pregnancy by correcting or preventing iron deficiency anemia in the mother. Anemia can lead to various complications for the mother and baby. Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to tissues. Therefore, by reducing anemia, iron supplementation ensures optimal oxygen delivery to both the mother and the developing fetus. This ultimately supports healthy pregnancy outcomes.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Iron supplementation does not directly increase fetal blood flow.
C: While iron deficiency may increase the risk of miscarriage, iron supplementation alone does not prevent miscarriages.
D: Iron is not directly involved in fetal bone growth, so iron supplementation does not enhance this aspect of fetal development.
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Which of the following can lead to placenta praevia?
- A. Grandmultiparity
- B. Preeclampsia
- C. Placenta fenestrate
- D. Placenta increta
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta praevia is more common in women with a history of multiple pregnancies (Grandmultiparity), as repeated stretching of the uterine wall can lead to abnormal placental implantation. Preeclampsia is a separate condition associated with hypertension in pregnancy. Placenta fenestrate and placenta increta are specific placental abnormalities but do not directly cause placenta praevia.
The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract, associated with abnormal apical position, is
- A. Laryngeal stridor
- B. Diaphragmatic hernia
- C. Choanal atresia
- D. Tracheo-bronchi fistula
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose.
Explanation:
1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position.
2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position.
3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position.
In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of
The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Sometimes True
- D. Unclear
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.
The birth weight of a very low birth weight baby ranges between
- A. 1000-500 gm
- B. 500-1500 gm
- C. 1001-1500 gm
- D. 1500-2000 gm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (500-1500 gm) because very low birth weight babies typically weigh less than 1500 grams at birth. This range encompasses the common weight range for these babies. Option A (1000-500 gm) is too narrow and excludes babies weighing below 500 grams. Option C (1001-1500 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies weighing over 1500 grams. Option D (1500-2000 gm) is incorrect as it includes babies above the typical weight range for very low birth weight babies.
Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Inflammatory bowel disease
- C. Diverticulitis
- D. Appendicitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.