Nokea
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
- A. 36 weeks gestation
- B. 42 weeks gestation
- C. 38 weeks gestation
- D. 40 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this stage, the fetal lie should stabilize into a consistent position, typically longitudinal. Before 36 weeks, fetal movement and position can vary frequently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where fetal lie should have stabilized. At 42 weeks gestation (Choice B), the baby is considered post-term, and fetal lie should have already been established. Similarly, Choices C (38 weeks) and D (40 weeks) fall within the expected range for fetal lie stabilization.
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An oedematous swelling on the newborn’s scalp is indicative of
- A. Caput succedaneum
- B. Subgaleal hemorrhage
- C. Intracranial injury
- D. Neonatal cephalhematoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Caput succedaneum. This swelling is a result of pressure during birth and typically resolves on its own. Subgaleal hemorrhage involves bleeding into the potential space between the periosteum and skull, presenting as a boggy mass. Intracranial injury refers to damage within the skull, often due to trauma. Neonatal cephalhematoma is a subperiosteal collection of blood, causing a localized swelling. Caput succedaneum is the most likely diagnosis based on the description provided.
A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
- A. It is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- B. It is an impaction of the posterior shoulder after delivery of the head
- C. Shoulder dystocia occurs due to compound presentation of the fetus
- D. Shoulder dystocia is not an emergency and resolves on its own effort gradually
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication.
C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously.
D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.
Which of the following is a true statement with respect to the use of corticosteroids in posttransplant patients?
- A. High-dose initial steroids are tapered to off over a period of 4 to 6 weeks posttransplant
- B. There is a strong interest in developing corticosteroid-free posttransplant protocols
- C. Better results are demonstrated in corticosteroid-free protocols for second-transplant recipients
- D. Evidence supports corticosteroid-free rejection protocols
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. High-dose initial steroids are tapered off over a period of 4 to 6 weeks posttransplant. This is because corticosteroids are used initially to prevent rejection and then gradually tapered to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect as it states a general interest but does not address the specific protocol for corticosteroid use. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence suggesting better results in corticosteroid-free protocols for second-transplant recipients. Choice D is incorrect as there is no strong evidence supporting corticosteroid-free rejection protocols in posttransplant patients.
P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate
- A. Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures
- B. Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures
- C. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased cardiac output
- D. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance.
A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance.
B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output.
D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.
The AGACNP knows that which of the following must be evaluated as a cause of her abdominal pain?
- A. HELLP syndrome
- B. Placental abruption
- C. Spontaneous hepatic rupture
- D. Preterm labor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HELLP syndrome. This must be evaluated as a cause of abdominal pain in a pregnant patient because it is a serious condition characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. These abnormalities can lead to abdominal pain, especially in the right upper quadrant. Placental abruption (B) presents with vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness, not specific abdominal pain. Spontaneous hepatic rupture (C) is rare and usually presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. Preterm labor (D) typically presents with regular uterine contractions and lower abdominal discomfort, not specific upper quadrant pain like in HELLP syndrome.