Nokea
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT with regards to precipitate delivery?
- A. May lead to uterine atony due to the moderate contractions experienced by client
- B. Puerperal sepsis is likely to result from unhygienic measures incorporated post-natally
- C. With adequate monitoring of the prenatal mother, precipitate delivery minimally recurs
- D. May cause cervical lacerations because of rapid descent and delivery of the baby
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because precipitate delivery, characterized by rapid descent and delivery of the baby, can cause cervical lacerations due to the fast and forceful passage of the baby through the birth canal. This can result in tearing of the cervical tissue. Choice A is incorrect because uterine atony is not typically associated with precipitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as puerperal sepsis is not directly related to the speed of delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the occurrence of precipitate delivery does not guarantee reduced risk of recurrence with prenatal monitoring.
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ed rosy appearance on the face and greatly reduced eliminations are among the features of
- A. Hypothermia neonatorum
- B. Hypoglycemia neonatorum
- C. Hyperthermia neonatorum
- D. Hypocalcemia neonatorum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Hyperthermia neonatorum refers to elevated body temperature in newborns.
2. The ed rosy appearance on the face is a common symptom of hyperthermia due to increased blood flow to the skin.
3. Greatly reduced eliminations can be a sign of dehydration associated with hyperthermia.
4. The other choices (hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia) do not align with the symptoms described.
Mrs. Maroldo is an 81-year-old female who presents for evaluation of pain in her left lower quadrant. She has had this pain before and says she usually takes antibiotics and it goes away. However, this time it seems worse, and she has had it for 4 days even though she says she started taking her leftover antibiotics from the last episode. She denies any nausea or vomiting but says she simply isnt hungry. She had a little diarrhea yesterday but no bowel movements today. She has a temperature of 100.9F and a pulse of 104 bpm, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 9460 mm Hg. She has some discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. The AGACNP suspects
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Inflammatory bowel disease
- C. Diverticulitis
- D. Appendicitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritable bowel syndrome. Mrs. Maroldo's history of recurrent left lower quadrant pain that usually resolves with antibiotics suggests a chronic condition rather than an acute one like diverticulitis, appendicitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. Her lack of nausea, vomiting, and severe symptoms, along with the presence of diarrhea and no bowel movements, align more with irritable bowel syndrome. Additionally, her vital signs are not significantly elevated, ruling out acute conditions like appendicitis. Discomfort to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant is common in irritable bowel syndrome due to visceral hypersensitivity. Therefore, based on her chronic symptoms, lack of severe signs, and typical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is irritable bowel syndrome.
An early sign of a ruptured uterus includes
- A. Maternal dehydration
- B. Maternal pyrexia >38˚C
- C. Maternal oliguria
- D. Failure of cervix to dilate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.
Ms. Kweke’s possible complications (obstructed labour):
- A. Hemorrhage, uterine rupture
- B. Fetal distress, infection
- C. Preterm birth, asphyxia
- D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Obstructed labor can lead to prolonged pressure on the uterus, causing hemorrhage and uterine rupture (A).
2. Prolonged labor can result in fetal distress due to reduced oxygen supply and potential infection (B).
3. Therefore, both complications mentioned in A and B can occur in obstructed labor.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Preterm birth and asphyxia are not directly related to obstructed labor.
B: Incorrect - Only fetal distress and infection are commonly associated with obstructed labor.
C: Incorrect - Both A and B are possible complications of obstructed labor, making D the correct choice.
Presence of severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is associated with hyperacidity.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In preeclampsia, epigastric pain is typically associated with liver and/or HELLP syndrome, not hyperacidity. Hyperacidity is more commonly seen in conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not related to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable as they do not provide relevant information to the question.