During a history, a patient reports rectal bleeding, a warning sign of colorectal cancer. The nurse correlates which clinical finding with colorectal cancer?
- A. Thick, blood-tinged mucus within the rectum
- B. A pus-filled cavity in the anorectal area
- C. An irregular mass with raised edges on the rectal wall
- D. A small, smooth nodule protruding from the rectum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an irregular mass with raised edges on the rectal wall is a common clinical finding associated with colorectal cancer. This mass could be a tumor or polyp, which can lead to rectal bleeding. Option A is incorrect because thick, blood-tinged mucus is more commonly associated with inflammatory conditions. Option B is incorrect as a pus-filled cavity suggests an abscess or infection, not colorectal cancer. Option D is incorrect because a small, smooth nodule is more indicative of hemorrhoids rather than colorectal cancer.
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The egg is fertilized in which anatomical structure?
- A. Vagina
- B. Uterus
- C. uterine (fallopian) tube
- D. cervix
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterus. After fertilization, the egg travels through the fallopian tube and implants in the uterus for further development. The vagina is the birth canal, not the site of fertilization. The fallopian tube is where fertilization typically occurs, but the actual implantation of the fertilized egg occurs in the uterus. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina and plays a role in pregnancy but is not where fertilization occurs.
Prophase I of the spermatocyte phase lasts approximately:
- A. 2 hours
- B. 24 hours
- C. 2 days
- D. 16 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (16 days) because prophase I of spermatocyte phase involves complex processes like chromosome pairing and recombination, which take time. It is a crucial stage in sperm formation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they underestimate the duration required for these intricate cellular events to occur. A shorter timeframe would not allow for proper genetic exchange and segregation, essential for genetic diversity in offspring. Thus, a longer duration like 16 days is necessary for the completion of prophase I in spermatocyte phase.
Her Hemovac has drained 60 ml postoperative day 1, 55 ml postoperative day 2, and 40 ml thus far today. She asks you when will the drain be removed. Which would be the most appropriate response?
- A. It will be removed the day you go home.'
- B. Usually the doctor waits until the drainage subsides or stops altogether.'
- C. I'm surprised the doctor didn't take it out by now.'
- D. If you ask your doctor maybe he'll take it out next time he comes in.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The drain is usually removed once the drainage subsides or stops, indicating proper healing.
What is the function of the milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate?
- A. Enable sperm to swim
- B. Activate sperm
- C. Cleanse the urethra
- D. Neutralize urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The milky-colored fluid secreted from the prostate cleanses the urethra. This fluid helps neutralize the acidity of the urethra, providing a more suitable environment for sperm to survive. It does not enable sperm to swim or activate them, as these functions are performed by other components of semen. Additionally, it does not neutralize urine, as its primary function is to support sperm survival and motility.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the _____.
- A. perimetrium
- B. cervix
- C. endometrium
- D. myometrium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: perimetrium. The perimetrium is the outer serosal layer of the uterus, providing protection and support. The other choices are incorrect: B. cervix is the lower portion of the uterus, C. endometrium is the inner lining where implantation occurs, and D. myometrium is the middle muscular layer of the uterus. The perimetrium is the outermost layer, making it the correct choice.