Nokea
During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which component of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?
- A. Cerebral cortex
- B. Basal ganglia
- C. Brainstem
- D. Cerebellum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex, particularly the motor cortex, is responsible for the voluntary control of precise movements such as turning a page. The cerebral cortex plays a crucial role in the highest level of control of motor functions, including those of the arm and hand. Choice B, Basal ganglia, is more involved in motor planning and coordination, while choice C, Brainstem, is responsible for basic life functions and reflexes. Choice D, Cerebellum, is primarily involved in coordination, precision, and accurate timing of movements, rather than the highest level of control for specific actions like page-turning.
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A patient is prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for the treatment of infertility. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse's teaching?
- A. This drug induces ovulation by stimulating gonadotropins.
- B. This drug induces ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- C. This drug suppresses ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins.
- D. This drug increases progesterone levels, which maintains pregnancy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the nurse's teaching is that clomiphene induces ovulation by stimulating the release of gonadotropins, which in turn stimulate the ovaries. Choice B is incorrect because clomiphene does not induce ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice C is also incorrect as clomiphene does not suppress ovulation by inhibiting gonadotropins. Choice D is inaccurate as clomiphene does not directly increase progesterone levels to maintain pregnancy.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?
- A. Apply a painful stimulus to see if the client pulls away.
- B. Check for pupil response to light.
- C. Assess the client's response to verbal commands.
- D. Observe the client's reaction to a cold stimulus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.
Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.
In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
- A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
- B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
- C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
- D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
- A. Failure of B cells to mature
- B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
- C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
- D. Selective IgG deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.