Nokea
During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?
- A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
- B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
- C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
- D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.
You may also like to solve these questions
In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks' gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:
- A. Gravida 2, para 1.
- B. Gravida 3, para 3.
- C. Gravida 4, para 2.
- D. Gravida 5, para 4.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.
According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?
- A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
- B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
- C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
- D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.
What causes Down's syndrome?
- A. Alcohol abuse by the mother at the time of conception.
- B. Sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. An extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- D. Drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. Choice A is incorrect as alcohol abuse is not the cause of Down's syndrome. Choice B is incorrect because Down's syndrome is not related to sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities. Choice D is also incorrect as drug abuse by the mother during pregnancy is not the cause of Down's syndrome.
In the context of an average ejaculation, which of the following statements is true about sperm?
- A. The average count of sperm in the ejaculate is 2.5 billion.
- B. Sperm in the ejaculate find the ovum by following the current of the fluid coming from the cervix.
- C. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm in the ejaculate will ever approach an ovum.
- D. Most of the sperm in the ejaculate move about in a random pattern in the vagina.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Out of millions of sperm released during ejaculation, only a small fraction, about 1 in 1,000, will approach the ovum. This statement is true as sperm face many obstacles and challenges on their journey to reach and fertilize an ovum. Choice A is incorrect because the average count of sperm in an ejaculate is typically in the millions, not billions. Choice B is incorrect as sperm do not find the ovum by following the current of fluid; they navigate using other mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect because while some sperm may move randomly in the vagina, the ones that approach the ovum do so through a more purposeful and directed movement.
A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations."
- B. "This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision."
- C. "This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears."
- D. "This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.