During a respiratory assessment, the nurse is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety
- B. Exercise
- C. Smoking
- D. A, B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking primarily affects the health of the respiratory system in the long term but may not immediately impact the character of respirations. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choices A and B are correct as anxiety and exercise can lead to changes in the rate and depth of respirations.
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Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Personal/professional development.' This category involves educating individuals in various aspects, including history and traditions. In this case, educating soldiers in the history and traditions of the service falls under personal/professional development rather than the other options provided. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses on responsibility and answerability, not education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains more to specific skill development rather than broader education on history and traditions. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' is related to maintaining physical standards and image, which is not directly relevant to educating soldiers in history and traditions.
For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. High-vitamin K foods
- D. High-calcium foods
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.
A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.
Which of the following describes the four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation?
- A. It is a problem-focused process of continued nursing care
- B. It is an open-ended process of continued nursing care
- C. It is a circular process of continued nursing care
- D. It is a trial-and-error process of continued nursing care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It is a circular process of continued nursing care.' The four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation in nursing is a continuous and cyclical process. Choice A is incorrect because the method is not solely problem-focused; it involves a comprehensive approach. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the cyclical nature of the process. Choice D is incorrect as the method is systematic and not based on trial-and-error but rather evidence-based practice.