Nokea
During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Obtain more information about the family history.
- B. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data.
- C. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50.
- D. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Family history of colon cancer flags risk first step's digging deeper: who, when, how many cases? That shapes if it's sporadic or hereditary (e.g., Lynch syndrome), guiding screening timing. Jumping to sigmoidoscopy or fecal tests skips assessment too soon without details. Colonoscopy at 50's standard, but family history might bump it earlier (e.g., 40 or 10 years before kin's diagnosis). Nurses in oncology start here, gathering intel to tailor prevention, not rushing tools that might miss the mark without context.
You may also like to solve these questions
Strategies to overcome barriers and challenges faced in insulin therapy include the following EXCEPT:
- A. Close supervision for the patient's first jab
- B. Threaten patient into adherence with insulin therapy
- C. Engage patient from the start
- D. Offer the least painful options currently available in the market
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin wins guide first shots, engage early, ease pain, set sharp goals; threats flop, breed resentment. Nurses coach this chronic game, not bully.
A 75-year-old female presented to the emergency department with shortness of breath. The client's daughter is at the bedside and shares that the client has a history of heart failure. The nurse places the client on the cardiac monitor and finds that the client is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 180 beats per minute. Which is a likely finding?
- A. Bounding pulses
- B. Lethargy
- C. Hypotension
- D. Edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation at 180 beats/minute in heart failure loses atrial kick, slashing output hypotension follows as rapid, erratic beats fail to fill ventricles, a likely finding with this tachycardic chaos. Bounding pulses need strong ejection, not here. Lethargy or edema might emerge, but BP drop's immediate, tied to poor perfusion. Nurses expect this, anticipating rate control or fluids, a critical catch in this acute decompensation.
Which of the following statements regarding dietary approaches to obesity treatment is TRUE?
- A. Dietary approaches are not as important as pharmacological approaches
- B. Carbohydrates have a greater satiating effect compared with proteins and fats, especially in individuals with prediabetes and obesity
- C. Intermittent fasting has consistently shown superior weight loss to very-low calorie and ketogenic diets as it is the easiest to adhere to
- D. Patient preference of dietary interventions plays a key part in adherence and ultimately weight loss and maintenance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dietary approaches to obesity vary, but patient preference significantly influences adherence and long-term weight loss success, per behavioral studies making this true. Pharmacological approaches complement, not overshadow, diet. Proteins/fats are more satiating than carbohydrates, especially in prediabetes/obesity. Intermittent fasting's superiority isn't consistent adherence varies, not universally easier than ketogenic or very-low calorie diets. Preference drives sustainability, key for physicians tailoring chronic obesity interventions.
Chemotherapeutic treatment of acute leukemia is done in four phases. Place these phases in the correct order.
- A. Maintenance
- B. Induction
- C. Intensification
- D. Consolidation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute leukemia's chemotherapy unfolds systematically: induction kicks off, aggressively killing leukemia cells to induce remission, a high-dose blitz. Intensification follows, targeting residual cells over months, relentless in early remission. Consolidation reinforces, eliminating lingering blasts post-remission, solidifying gains. Maintenance, with lower doses, sustains remission long-term, preventing relapse. This order induction, intensification, consolidation, maintenance mirrors the disease's need for initial eradication then sustained control, a structured approach nurses reinforce through patient education and monitoring, ensuring each phase's purpose aligns with leukemia's aggressive biology and treatment goals.
Which of the following would predispose a client to mitral stenosis?
- A. Obesity
- B. Rheumatic fever
- C. Intravenous drug use
- D. Diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral stenosis narrows the valve rheumatic fever's scarring, from streptococcal aftermath, is the prime culprit, stiffening leaflets over years. Obesity, IV drug use (tied to endocarditis), or diabetes don't directly scar valves. Nurses link rheumatic history to this, watching for dyspnea or murmurs, a legacy of infection shaping this cardiac bottleneck.