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What is the cut-off of blood pressure for the diagnosis of hypertension that is recommended by MOH Clinical Practice Guideline?
- A. 120/70 mmHg
- B. 125/75 mmHg
- C. 130/70 mmHg
- D. 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MOH guidelines hold hypertension at 140/90 mmHg, a conventional cutoff balancing sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis in primary care, aligning with global norms like WHO. Lower thresholds 120/70, 125/75, 130/70, 135/80 catch prehypertension or align with newer AHA standards, but MOH sticks to 140/90 for actionable clarity, triggering treatment to curb stroke or heart risks. This higher bar avoids overdiagnosis in resource-stretched settings, ensuring focus on clear disease, a practical call for managing chronic vascular load.
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A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client's oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Crush the medications if the client cannot swallow them.
- B. Give one medication at a time with a full glass of water.
- C. No special precautions are needed for these medications.
- D. Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oral chemotherapy drugs, like their IV counterparts, are hazardous due to their cytotoxic properties, posing risks to healthcare workers through skin contact or inhalation during handling. The most appropriate action is for the nurse to wear personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, to minimize exposure, aligning with oncology safety standards. Crushing these medications is contraindicated, as it increases the risk of aerosolizing toxic particles, endangering both nurse and client many are labeled do not crush.' Giving one at a time with water isn't necessary unless specified and doesn't address safety. Assuming no precautions are needed ignores the drugs' hazardous nature, risking occupational exposure. Using PPE ensures safe administration, protects the nurse's health, and maintains the medication's integrity, reflecting best practices in cancer care where handling precautions are non-negotiable.
A 75-year-old female presented to the emergency department with shortness of breath. The client's daughter is at the bedside and shares that the client has a history of heart failure. The nurse places the client on the cardiac monitor and finds that the client is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 180 beats per minute. Which is a likely finding?
- A. Bounding pulses
- B. Lethargy
- C. Hypotension
- D. Edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation at 180 beats/minute in heart failure loses atrial kick, slashing output hypotension follows as rapid, erratic beats fail to fill ventricles, a likely finding with this tachycardic chaos. Bounding pulses need strong ejection, not here. Lethargy or edema might emerge, but BP drop's immediate, tied to poor perfusion. Nurses expect this, anticipating rate control or fluids, a critical catch in this acute decompensation.
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
- A. Yearly Pap tests
- B. Testicular self-examination
- C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
- D. Screening mammograms
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention stops cancer before it starts by reducing risk factors in healthy folks. Teaching sunscreen use blocks UV radiation a prime cause of skin cancer like melanoma fitting this category perfectly. Pap tests and mammograms are secondary prevention, detecting cervical and breast cancer early for treatment. Testicular self-exams also fall under secondary, aiming to catch testicular cancer sooner. The shift to primary efforts, like sun protection, reflects a proactive stance, cutting UV-induced DNA damage that kicks off carcinogenesis. Nurses pushing this can slash skin cancer rates, especially in fair-skinned populations, by fostering habits that shield against environmental triggers, unlike reactive screening or post-diagnosis care.
The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Shivering and chills
- C. Muscle aches and pains
- D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody, can trigger anaphylaxis shortness of breath yells airway trouble, needing stat infusion halt over chills , aches , or mild fever . Nurses in oncology jump breathing trumps flu-like norms, a life-or-death call.
A client with a history of prostate cancer is in the clinic and reports new onset of severe low back pain. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Assess the client's gait and balance.
- B. Ask the client about the ease of urine flow.
- C. Document the report completely.
- D. Inquire about the client's job risks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prostate cancer commonly metastasizes to bones, especially the spine, causing spinal cord compression a medical emergency that can lead to paralysis if untreated. New, severe low back pain in this context suggests possible metastasis, making gait and balance assessment the most appropriate action to check for neurological deficits (e.g., weakness, unsteady gait) indicating compression. This prioritizes client safety, as falls or worsening paralysis could result without intervention. Asking about urine flow relates to prostate obstruction, less urgent here given the pain's prominence. Documentation is essential but passive without assessment. Job risks might contribute to back pain but are secondary to cancer history. Assessing gait and balance first ensures rapid escalation if needed, reflecting oncology nursing's focus on detecting metastatic complications early.