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During a routine physical examination, a nurse observes a 1-cm (0.4-in) lesion on a client's chest. The lesion is raised and flesh-colored with pearly white borders. The nurse should recognize that this finding is suggestive of which of the following types of skin cancer?
- A. Melanoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Basal cell carcinoma
- D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders. This type of skin cancer is the most common and is usually slow-growing with low metastatic potential. It is often found on sun-exposed areas such as the face, neck, and chest. Melanoma (A) is characterized by asymmetry, irregular borders, varied color, and a diameter larger than 6mm. Squamous cell carcinoma (B) is usually a firm, red nodule or a flat lesion with a scaly crust. Kaposi's sarcoma (D) typically presents as purple or blue-black patches or nodules on the skin.
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A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who the provider suspects has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following results should the nurse expect to see?
- A. pH below 7.35
- B. pH above 7.45
- C. HCO3- above 28 mEq/L
- D. PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: pH below 7.35. In metabolic acidosis, there is a decrease in pH due to an excess of acid or a loss of bicarbonate ions. A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. Choices B and C are incorrect because in metabolic acidosis, the pH is below the normal range of 7.35-7.45, and the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is typically below 24 mEq/L rather than above 28 mEq/L. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated PaCO2 (respiratory acidosis) is not typically seen in metabolic acidosis.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Reposition the client
- B. Check the chest tube for kinks
- C. Increase the suction pressure
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Repositioning the client can help alleviate chest burning caused by the chest tube.
A nurse works with an AP assigned to bathe a client with herpes zoster. The AP asks if it is contagious. What should the nurse say?
- A. Herpes zoster is not contagious to people who have had chickenpox.
- B. Herpes zoster spreads through the air.
- C. Herpes zoster is highly contagious to everyone.
- D. Herpes zoster only spreads through blood contact.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Individuals who have had chickenpox in the past are not at risk of getting shingles from someone with herpes zoster. The virus is not transmitted through the air (choice B) or through blood contact only (choice D). It is not highly contagious to everyone (choice C). By explaining to the AP that herpes zoster is not contagious to individuals who have had chickenpox, the nurse provides accurate information and helps alleviate concerns about the spread of the virus.
A nurse is caring for a client who develops a ventricular fibrillation rhythm. The client is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Call for help
- D. Start chest compressions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that requires immediate defibrillation to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation is the priority as it is the most effective intervention to treat ventricular fibrillation and increase the chance of survival. Administering oxygen (B) is important but not the priority over defibrillation. Calling for help (C) should be done after initiating defibrillation. Starting chest compressions (D) should only be done if defibrillation is not immediately available or unsuccessful.
A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.