During a vaginal exam, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is softened. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Ortolani's sign
- B. Chadwick's sign
- C. Goodell's sign
- D. Hegar's sign
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment, felt early in pregnancy. Ortolani's tests infant hips, Chadwick's is cervical discoloration, and Goodell's is cervical softening, not uterine.
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When describing perinatal education to a pregnant woman and her partner, the nurse emphasizes which goal as the primary one?
- A. Eliminate anxiety so that they can have an uncomplicated birth
- B. Empower the couple to take control over their pregnancy and birth
- C. Equip a couple with the knowledge to experience a positive birth
- D. Provide knowledge and skills that will help them cope with labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perinatal education aims to prepare couples for a positive birth by providing knowledge for informed decisions and coping strategies, enhancing satisfaction and well-being. Eliminating anxiety is unrealistic, control is partial, and labor skills are only one aspect.
It is determined that a client's blood Rh is negative and her partner's is positive. To help prevent Rh isoimmunization, the nurse would expect to administer Rho(D) immune globulin at which time?
- A. 24 hours before delivery and 24 hours after delivery
- B. In the first trimester and within 2 hours of delivery
- C. At 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours after delivery
- D. At 32 weeks gestation and immediately before discharge
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours post-delivery prevents Rh isoimmunization effectively. Other schedules miss critical windows for blocking maternal antibody response.
A nurse is preparing to infuse 1 liter of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over 8 hr with a tubing set that delivers 15 gtts/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many drops/min?
- A. 31 gtts/min
- B. 30 gtts/min
- C. 32 gtts/min
- D. 29 gtts/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Formula: gtts/min = (volume x drop factor) / time. (1000 mL x 15 gtts/mL) / (8 x 60 min) = 15000 / 480 = 31.25, rounded to 31 gtts/min. Other options miscalculate the rate.
A client is suspected of having a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which assessment would the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Edema
- C. Infection
- D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A ruptured ectopic pregnancy causes internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic shock, making hemorrhage the priority assessment. Edema, infection, or jaundice may occur later but are less urgent than life-threatening bleeding.
A nurse is conducting an in-service program for a group of nurses working at the women's health facility about the causes of spontaneous abortion. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which condition as the most common cause of first trimester abortions?
- A. Cervical insufficiency
- B. Uterine fibroids
- C. Fetal genetic abnormalities
- D. Maternal disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fetal genetic abnormalities, like chromosomal errors, cause ~70% of first trimester abortions. Cervical insufficiency affects later trimesters, fibroids and maternal diseases (e.g., diabetes) are less common causes early on.